Airports, Air Traffic Control and Airspace

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Flashcards covering key concepts from lecture notes on Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace regulations and procedures. Style: Fill-in-the-Blank.

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77 Terms

1
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What type of direction do runway numbers indicate, aligned every 10 degrees by dropping the last '0'?

magnetic

2
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If a runway is numbered 36, what would be the number for the runway in the opposite direction, following the rule of subtracting 2 from the first digit and adding 2 to the second digit?

18

3
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What marks the beginning of the runway for all operations, including takeoff, landing, and taxi?

Threshold

4
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What type of threshold is often used for obstruction clearance on landing, and is not considered full strength for landing, though usable for taxi and takeoff?

displaced

5
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What type of white line marks a displaced threshold?

solid

6
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What yellow markings on a runway indicate a surface unusable for takeoff, landing, or taxiing due to structural unsoundness?

chevrons

7
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What symbol typically marks closed runways?

"X"

8
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On a runway holding position marking with solid and dashed yellow lines, what action should you take on the side of the solid lines without an ATC clearance?

hold short

9
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What type of runway signs have a black background with yellow letters or numbers, indicating your current position on the airport?

location

10
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What type of taxiway signs have a yellow background with black letters or numbers, indicating the direction of other taxiways from an intersection?

direction

11
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What signs, with a yellow background and black letters or numbers, indicate directions to runways, terminals, ramps, or specific FBOs?

Destination

12
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What is a mandatory instruction sign with a red background and white numbers, indicating a holding position for a specific runway, called?

runway holding position sign

13
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Runway distance remaining signs indicate the remaining runway length in what unit of feet?

thousands

14
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What area is it where aircraft can interfere with Localizer and Glidepath radio signals, requiring a hold short instruction from ATC?

ILS critical area

15
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What yellow bar separates a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or a taxiway preceding the runway?

yellow demarcation

16
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At Class 'D' airports, the airport beacon operates during the day when VFR conditions do not exist, meaning visibility is less than 3 miles or the ceiling is below how many feet?

1,000

17
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What color are taxiway edge lights typically?

blue

18
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What color are runway edge lights typically?

white

19
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How many times should a pilot click the microphone on the given frequency to activate pilot-controlled lighting to high intensity?

7

20
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The recommended entry for an airport traffic pattern is 45 degrees to what part of the midfield?

downwind

21
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At what altitude AGL are traffic patterns typically flown?

1,000

22
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When entering a traffic pattern, a pilot should fly clear of the pattern at an altitude of pattern altitude plus how many feet, then descend to pattern altitude to enter midfield downwind at 45 degrees?

500

23
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At an uncontrolled airport, what provides traffic pattern information?

segmented circle

24
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When landing, a pilot should align with the direction the tip of what pointing device, or the crossbar of a wind 'T', or as if flying out of the large end of a wind cone?

Tetrahedron

25
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On a VASI system, what does 'red over red' indicate about the aircraft's position?

low

26
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On a VASI system, what does 'red over white' indicate about the aircraft's position relative to the glide path?

on

27
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When using a PAPI system, what type of white light indicates that the aircraft is on the glide path?

steady

28
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Wingtip vortices are strongest under what condition, along with being clean and slow?

heavy

29
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To avoid wingtip vortices on landing, an aircraft should stay what, relative to the flight path of the preceding aircraft, and land past its point of touchdown?

above

30
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Wingtip vortices are most dangerous with what kind of light tailwind?

quartering

31
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Aircraft navigation lights include a red light on the left wing, a green light on the right wing, and what color light on the tail?

white

32
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What type of aircraft lights, such as strobes or a flashing red rotating beacon, are designed to be seen from all angles for collision avoidance?

anticollision

33
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When scanning for traffic during the day, pilots should use small, regular intervals of no more than what number of degrees, scanning for at least 1 second each?

10

34
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On what kind of days do most mid-air collisions occur?

clear

35
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A Near Mid Air Collision (NMAC) is defined as being less than how many feet away from another aircraft?

500

36
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Pilots are encouraged to have their landing light on when flying below how many feet?

10,000

37
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What system (ADS-B) allows ATC to see aircraft with more precision using GPS signals, even in mountainous terrain and at low altitudes, and was required for all aircraft by 2020?

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-B

38
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VHF radio communication is limited to what kind of sight, meaning its waves can be blocked by obstructions like buildings or terrain?

line

39
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When making initial radio contact with ATC, you should use your full registration number and wait for ATC to do what with it?

shorten

40
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If experiencing lost communications while in flight, what light gun signal from the tower means 'Cleared to land'?

steady green

41
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If experiencing lost communications while on the ground, what light gun signal means 'Cleared for taxi'?

flashing green

42
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What service (ATIS) provides a continuous broadcast of essential airport information, such as weather and active runways, at busy airports?

Automatic Terminal Information Service

43
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After landing, you should only switch to ground control if what from the control tower?

told

44
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A 'line up and wait' clearance from ground control authorizes an aircraft to taxi onto the runway, but not to do what?

take off

45
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What station (FSS) provides services such as weather briefings, filing flight plans, and search and rescue assistance?

Flight Service Station

46
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What centers (ARTCCs) have extensive radar coverage and, workload permitting, can offer VFR aircraft traffic advisories, course guidance, and vectors?

Air Route Traffic Control Centers

47
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At an uncontrolled airport, what frequency (CTAF) is used for pilots to self-announce their positions and intentions?

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

48
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What is a privately owned aeronautical advisory station at uncontrolled airports where you can request information like traffic advisories or fuel services?

Unicom

49
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What word, repeated three times, should be used to declare an urgent situation such as being doubtful of your position or having low fuel?

Pan-Pan

50
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What word, repeated three times, signifies an imminent danger requiring immediate assistance, such as a fire or structural failure?

Mayday

51
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What is the transponder code for a general emergency?

7700

52
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What is the transponder code for lost radio communications?

7600

53
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What is the transponder code for a hijacking?

7500

54
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In an emergency, what is the recommended procedure that involves confessing your emergency, as well as climbing and communicating?

confess

55
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What device (ELT) activates automatically upon crash forces, and on what frequency does it transmit a distinctive tone to aid in search and rescue?

Emergency Locator Transmitter, 121.5 MHz

56
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Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to how many feet MSL over the contiguous United States?

Flight Level 600 (FL600)

57
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To operate in Class A airspace, an aircraft must have what rating and file an IFR flight plan, with ATC clearance being implied upon entry?

instrument

58
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The altimeter in Class A airspace must be set to how many inches of mercury?

29.92

59
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To enter Class B airspace, a pilot must have what certificate or a student pilot certificate with the appropriate logbook endorsement?

private pilot certificate

60
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What altitude encoding device is required within 30 nautical miles of a Class B primary airport?

transponder

61
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Entering Class B airspace requires a specific what from Air Traffic Control?

clearance

62
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Class C airspace typically surrounds medium-sized airports, with a core cylinder extending from the surface up to how many feet AGL?

4,000

63
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Before entering Class C airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain what type of radio communication with ATC?

two-way

64
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What Mode C transponder is required to operate within Class C airspace?

transponder

65
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The VFR weather minimums for Class C airspace require what visibility in statute miles?

3

66
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VFR cloud clearance requirements in Class C airspace are 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and how many feet horizontal from clouds?

2,000

67
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Class D airspace generally has what nautical mile radius and extends up to 2,500 feet AGL?

4

68
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When the control tower at an airport with Class D airspace is closed, what class of airspace does it usually revert to?

E

69
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Aircraft operating within Class D airspace must maintain a speed of less than how many knots?

200

70
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The VFR weather minimums for Class D airspace require 3 statute miles visibility and cloud clearances of 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and how many feet horizontal?

2,000

71
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For VFR flight below 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace, what is the minimum visibility requirement in statute miles?

3

72
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For VFR flight at or above 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace, what is the minimum visibility requirement in statute miles?

5

73
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Below 10,000 feet MSL, VFR cloud clearance in Class E airspace is 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and how many feet horizontally?

2,000

74
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At or above 10,000 feet MSL, VFR cloud clearance in Class E airspace is 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and what horizontally in statute miles?

1

75
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What area (TRSA) provides expanded radar services around Class D airspace, with voluntary but recommended participation for safety?

Terminal Radar Service Area

76
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For aircraft participating in TRSA services, what device is required along with two-way radio communication?

transponder

77
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Basic radar services, which are voluntary for VFR aircraft, include traffic advisories, safety alerts, and minimum ability for what?

vectors

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