Comprehensive PET/CT and Radiopharmaceuticals: Production, Imaging, and Quality Control

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Last updated 8:42 PM on 3/21/26
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257 Terms

1
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How do samples and doses for testing get from the cell to the QC room?

Via a pass through window.

2
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Why is radiopharmaceutical synthesis and dispensing performed in classified cleanroom environments under GMP conditions?

To ensure sterility, product quantity, and patient safety.

3
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Which target material is most commonly used to produce F-18 for FDG production?

O-18 enriched water.

4
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What is one advantage of automated synthesis modules used in PET radiopharmaceutical production?

They reduce operator radiation exposure and improve reproducibility.

5
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What is the physical half-life of Rubidium-82?

75 seconds.

6
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What is an immediate stop use limit for the Sr/Rb generator?

17L of cumulative eluate volume.

7
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What is the eluent for the Ge/Ga generator?

Hydrochloric Acid.

8
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Which regulation specifically addresses the production of PET radiopharmaceuticals?

21 CFR 212.

9
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Which device compounds PET radiopharmaceuticals?

Synthesis module.

10
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What happens to the mass and atomic number of a nuclide that undergoes positron decay?

The mass stays the same but the atomic number decreases by one.

11
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What principle of positron physics results in degradation of spatial resolution in PET images?

Effective positron range.

12
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Are most PET radiopharmaceuticals produced in a reactor or generator?

False.

13
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Which PET radionuclide is produced via a generator?

Ga-68.

14
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What is the stop use limit for the Sr-82 generator?

17L cumulative eluate volume.

15
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Which radionuclide has the longest half-life?

Cu-64.

16
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What is a lead-shielded device used to reduce radiation exposure during the tagging process for PET radiopharmaceuticals?

Hot cell.

17
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Which quality control test for F-18 involves thin-layer chromatography to ensure the radiopharmaceutical is at least 90% bound?

Radiochemical purity.

18
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What is the half-life of Ge-68?

271 days.

19
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What type of particles do negative ion PET cyclotrons accelerate?

Negatively charged hydrogen atoms.

20
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What quality must detectors have for Time of Flight to be accomplished?

Short decay time.

21
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Which detector material is the most dense?

LSO.

22
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What is a CT image essentially a map of?

Attenuation/tissue density.

23
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In CT, voxel values are given in terms of what?

Hounsfield units, which express the attenuation of a given tissue relative to that of water.

24
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What effect causes a small cold lesion to appear to have less count density than it really has?

Partial volume effect.

25
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What is seen in a blank scan when there is a failure of a detector block?

A diagonal blank line.

26
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What is the term for the travel distance of the CT scan table per 360° rotation of the x-ray tube divided by the x-ray beam collimation width?

Pitch.

27
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What is a drawback of using thicker CT slices when imaging?

They increase the likelihood of missing very small objects.

28
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If the range of Hounsfield numbers on the image is 0 to 200, what color will a value of 250 display as?

White.

29
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What characteristics improve PET sensitivity?

Thicker crystal, higher timing resolution, lower energy threshold.

30
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What image quality characteristics do PET scanners with smaller crystal elements improve?

Spatial resolution.

31
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What generally happens when increasing crystal thickness?

Increase sensitivity but slightly degrade spatial resolution.

32
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Which PET/CT QC test verifies that the x-ray tube is correctly calibrated on all kVp and mAs settings?

Air Calibration.

33
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Which CT scanner test evaluates the standard deviation of a phantom to determine the extent of noise and accuracy of CT numbers?

Daily water phantom scan.

34
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What is the typical rotation speed of most modern CT scanners?

0.5 seconds per rotation.

35
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What artifact is seen in the image?

Beam hardening.

36
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What imaging artifact is seen in this image?

Misalignment.

37
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Does PET/MR for FDG imaging provide superior anatomic localization and image contrast compared to PET/CT?

True.

38
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When used for imaging a patient post-stroke, what will 18F-FDG uptake in areas of ischemia or necrosis appear as?

Decreased uptake.

39
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What are the indications for FDG neurology listed in the SNMMi procedure guidelines?

Neurooncology, movement disorders, Parkinson's syndromes, Alzheimer's and dementia, epilepsy, encephalitis.

40
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What is the outermost layer of the cerebrum where matter lives?

Cerebral cortex.

41
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Which type of cell controls neurotransmitter levels around synapses?

Astrocytes.

42
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How long should patients receiving FDG brain imaging stay quiet in a dimly lit room before injection?

20-30 minutes.

43
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What is the main function of the blood-brain barrier?

Protect the brain from pathogens and toxins.

44
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Which cell type acts as the brain's immune cell and is associated with neuroinflammation?

Microglia.

45
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What do the external carotid arteries supply blood to?

Face.

46
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Why must FDG brain patients be kept in a quiet, dimly lit room?

To prevent overstimulation of certain areas of the brain, which could result in a false positive or false negative study.

47
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What is a contraindication for FDG brain imaging?

A blood glucose over 200 mg/dL.

48
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What is NOT required during the uptake of FDG for brain imaging?

Sedation should be given immediately after injection.

49
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What is the most appropriate imaging time for a 2D acquisition of an FDG brain study for Ictal scanning?

20 minutes.

50
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What is the appropriate positioning for an F18 FDG brain scan?

Supine arms down.

51
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What substances may alter glucose metabolism in the brain and lead to false results in an FDG brain study?

Caffeine, alcohol, and some psychiatric medications.

52
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What is the half-life for 18-Fluorine?

109 minutes.

53
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Does PET/MR for FDG brain imaging provide superior anatomic localization and image contrast compared to PET/CT?

True.

54
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What should be taken into consideration in the timing of the scan at the end of the uptake time?

Mental status of the patient.

55
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Which cells provide structural stability, maintain the chemical environment, and regulate repair processes?

Glia.

56
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What anatomical marker should be used for positioning in dementia imaging?

Camthomeatal line.

57
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What information is needed to calculate accurate SUV calculations for dementia imaging?

Patient height, patient weight, and amount of injected activity.

58
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What is the purpose of dementia imaging with FDG as an adjunct to amyloid imaging?

Assisting in differentiation in the type of dementia.

59
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What is the major difference in imaging protocols between FDG and amyloid agents for dementia imaging?

Patients do not need a quiet dimly lit room with reduced stimulation for amyloid.

60
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What is amyloid plaque?

Insoluble fibrous protein aggregates.

61
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What recreational drugs interfere with 18F-dopa uptake?

Methamphetamines.

62
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Which reconstruction method is recommended for F-dopa according to practice guidelines?

Iterative reconstruction with OSEM (ordered subset expectation maximization).

63
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What do tau tangles disrupt communications between?

Dendrites.

64
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What is the most appropriate choice for imaging a patient with parkinsonian syndrome?

18F-Flurodopa.

65
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Do 18F-Flurodopa and I-123 Ioflupane have the same mechanism of action?

False.

66
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What is the method of localization for amyloid brain imaging?

Receptor binding.

67
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What dietary restrictions are there for 18F-Dopa scanning?

Withhold amino-acid containing foods for 4 hours.

68
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What adjunctive medication is given 60-90 minutes prior to F-dopa injection?

To increase the bioavailability of DOPA to the brain and reduce the radiation dose to the bladder.

69
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What is the recommended acquisition time for F-18 Flortaucipir Imaging?

20 minutes

70
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What type of dementia is marked by a loss of dopamine receptors in the striatum?

Lewy-Bodies

71
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What is visually characteristic of Parkinson's Disease in F-dopa imaging?

Asymmetric pattern of reduced putamen and preserved caudate uptake

72
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What is the appropriate uptake time from injection to scanning for tau imaging?

80 minutes

73
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Will amyloid and tau always accumulate in the same areas of the brain if the same patient is scanned with both imaging agents?

False

74
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Is tumor heterogeneity often a sign of tumor progression/aggression?

True

75
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What does TAM stand for?

Tumor associated macrophages

76
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Do all malignant cells metabolize glucose at an increased rate?

False

77
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How is N-13 produced?

Via cyclotron

78
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What factors affect the value obtained for the SUV?

Partial volume correction, count rate determination, region of interest definition

79
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Why is knowledge of a PET tomograph's spatial resolution necessary?

To determine resolution recovery coefficients

80
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What is created by accelerating electrons into an anode?

X-rays

81
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What is seen as a diagonal blank line in a blank scan?

Failure of a detector block

<p>Failure of a detector block</p>
82
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What are the half-lives of Cu-64, Rb-82, C-11, N-13, Ga-68, and F-18?

Cu-64 → 12.8 hours, Rb-82 → 75 seconds, C-11 → 20.4 minutes, N-13 → 9.9 minutes, Ga-68 → 68 minutes, F-18 → 109 minutes

83
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What quality must detectors have for Time of Flight?

Short decay time

84
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What do values higher than 2,000 HU on the Hounsfield scale represent?

Very dense materials

85
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How can artifacts caused by anatomy 'moves' be remedied?

Gating

86
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What is the appropriate slice thickness for FDG brain imaging?

2-4mm

87
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Which radiopharmaceutical is used to evaluate depression and other issues of brain metabolism?

18F-FDG

88
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Why must patients be placed in a quiet dimly lit room before their 18F-FDG study?

To relax the brain for even distribution/uptake

89
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Did the technologist make a mistake by using a previous weight for the FDG oncologic study?

True

90
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What radionuclides are possible radioactive contaminants in the eluent of a Rb-82 generator?

82Sr and 85Sr

91
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What is the term for the chance detection of photons from unrelated annihilation events?

Random coincidence

92
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What is the most common irradiation process of producing 18F?

18O(p,n)18F

93
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Which radionuclide accumulates in the brain based on the presence of neurofibril tangles?

F-18 Flortaucipir

94
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What does the term 'attenuation' refer to?

The loss of gamma rays as they pass through tissue

95
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Which is the most appropriate radiopharmaceutical for a patient being evaluated for Huntington's Disease?

F-18 Fluorodopa

96
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What is the target material for F-18 production?

O-18 enriched water

97
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Which of the following is a contraindication for FDG PET/CT imaging?

Hyperglycemia, severe claustrophobia, ocular metal shrapnel

98
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What is O-18 enriched water used for?

It is used in PET imaging.

99
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What is a contraindication for FDG PET/CT imaging?

Glucose level above 200.

100
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Which medication may reduce skeletal muscle uptake in head and neck cancer patients?

Alprozolam.

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