Quiz III Hematologic and Vascular Disease (Questions)

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These question-and-answer flashcards cover key concepts, definitions, pathogenesis, clinical signs, and rehabilitation implications for hypertension, peripheral vascular diseases, aneurysms, hematologic disorders, anemias, sickle cell disease, and leukemias as discussed in the lecture.

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43 Terms

1
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What two factors determine blood pressure (BP)?

Cardiac output multiplied by total peripheral resistance (TPR).

2
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In the BP equation, what influences Total Peripheral Resistance?

The diameter of blood vessels and the viscosity of the blood.

3
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How is hypertension defined?

A sustained elevation in systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure.

4
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What cardiovascular conditions are patients with hypertension at increased risk for?

Cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and heart disease.

5
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What systolic and diastolic values define Stage 1 Hypertension according to the AHA?

Systolic 130–139 mm Hg or diastolic 80–89 mm Hg.

6
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Which BP values require immediate medical attention for a hypertensive crisis?

Systolic higher than 180 mm Hg and/or diastolic higher than 120 mm Hg.

7
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What proportion of all hypertension cases are classified as primary (essential) hypertension?

About 90 %–95 %.

8
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Name three modifiable risk factors for hypertension.

High sodium intake, obesity, and smoking (others include diabetes, hypercholester-aemia, ongoing stress, sedentary lifestyle).

9
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Give two non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension.

Age >55 years, family history (others: sex, ethnicity).

10
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Which renal-endocrine system is activated when BP drops and contributes to hypertension pathogenesis?

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS).

11
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Outline the sequence of the RAAS from renin release to BP increase.

Renin → converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I → ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II → angiotensin II causes potent vasoconstriction → BP rises.

12
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List two common symptoms that may appear in symptomatic hypertension.

Occipital morning headache and nosebleeds (others: vertigo, flushed face, blurred vision).

13
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What BP reading constitutes a contraindication to starting PT treatment due to hypotension?

Blood pressure lower than 90/60 mm Hg.

14
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At what BP level (>/) is PT treatment usually contraindicated because of severe hypertension?

Greater than 180/100 mm Hg.

15
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What broad categories make up peripheral vascular disease (PVD)?

Inflammatory, arterial occlusive, venous, and vasomotor disorders.

16
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Which inflammatory vessel disease is most common and often associated with rheumatic diseases?

Vasculitis.

17
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What lifestyle habit is strongly linked with Thromboangiitis Obliterans (Buerger disease)?

Heavy smoking.

18
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Name two hallmark signs of Thromboangiitis Obliterans.

Ischemic ulceration of hands/feet and severe episodic burning pain (others: paresthesias, diminished pulses, cold sensitivity).

19
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Which peripheral arterial disease is synonymous with "arteriosclerosis obliterans"?

The most common form of arterial occlusive PVD, frequently referred to simply as PVD.

20
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At approximately what percentage of arterial narrowing does intermittent claudication typically appear?

When the vessel lumen is narrowed by 50 % or more.

21
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Describe a classic arterial insufficiency ulcer.

Distal extremity ulcer with minimal exudate, dry dark necrosis, and risk of dry gangrene.

22
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Why is keeping wounds dry critical in arterial insufficiency?

Moisture can convert dry (stable) gangrene into wet (unstable) gangrene, increasing infection risk.

23
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What two bedside tests are commonly used to assess arterial perfusion during rehab?

Rubor of dependency test and the Ankle–Brachial Index (ABI).

24
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State the three elements of Virchow’s triad for venous thrombosis.

Venous stasis, hypercoagulability, and injury to the vessel wall.

25
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List three typical clinical signs of an acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Unilateral swelling, tenderness/dull ache, and pitting edema (others: dilated superficial veins, increased local temperature).

26
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Which preventive strategy is considered BEST for DVT in hospitalized patients?

Early mobilization/ambulation.

27
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What guideline tool helps determine mobility safety in the presence of DVT?

The Wells Clinical Prediction Rule (Wells Criteria).

28
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Explain the primary pathogenesis of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI).

Incompetent venous valves lead to venous hypertension, vein dilation, and leakage of fluid/proteins into tissues causing edema.

29
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Where are venous ulcers most commonly located?

Gaiter area—the medial lower leg around the malleoli.

30
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What wound-care principle is essential for venous ulcers?

Compression therapy to reduce edema and improve venous return.

31
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Define an aneurysm.

An abnormal dilation of an artery, vein, or the heart wall measuring ≥50 % greater than normal diameter.

32
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Identify the most common arterial site for aneurysms.

The aorta, particularly the abdominal aorta (AAA).

33
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Give two red-flag symptoms of an impending abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture.

Palpable abdominal heartbeat and radiating groin/flank pain.

34
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Name three primary organs/tissues included in the hematologic system.

Bone marrow, spleen, and lymphatic system (also arteries and veins).

35
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Provide the normal adult leukocyte range.

5,000–10,000 cells/mm³.

36
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What defines anemia?

A pathologic reduction in the quantity or quality of red blood cells, leading to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

37
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List three broad etiologic categories of anemia.

Excessive blood loss, increased destruction (hemolysis) of erythrocytes, and decreased production of erythrocytes.

38
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What single amino-acid substitution causes sickle cell hemoglobin (Hb S)?

Valine replaces glutamic acid at the 6th position of the beta-globin chain.

39
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State two common systemic complications of sickle cell disease.

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head and stroke (others: pulmonary hypertension, renal failure, stasis ulcers).

40
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Below which hemoglobin (g/dL) should PT treatment be deferred according to the lecture?

Less than 7 g/dL (with hematocrit <15 %).

41
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Which leukemia predominantly affects adults and produces myeloid blast cells?

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).

42
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What childhood-dominant leukemia involves immature B- or T-lymphocytes?

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).

43
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Why are strict hand-washing and isolation precautions vital during PT for leukemia patients?

Because pancytopenia and neutropenia significantly increase infection risk.