Bio 97 Lectures Vocab Flashcards (QA Style)

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QA-style flashcards drawn from the lecture notes, covering genetics, molecular biology, genome editing, cloning, bacterial genetics, and related ethics and terminology.

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246 Terms

1
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What is a complex trait?

A trait influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors; does not follow Mendelian inheritance (e.g., height).

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What is a Mendelian trait?

A trait inherited according to simple Mendelian patterns, typically controlled by a single gene.

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What is Broad-sense heritability (H2) and how is it calculated?

H2 = VG/VP; the proportion of phenotypic variance in a population due to genetic factors.

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What does VP stand for and mean?

Phenotypic variance; the total observed variation in a trait within a population.

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What does VG stand for and mean?

Genetic variance; the portion of VP attributable to genetic differences among individuals.

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What does VE stand for and mean?

Environmental variance; the portion of VP attributable to environmental factors.

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What does heritability mean in a population context?

Proportion of phenotypic variation in a population due to genetic variation, given the environment.

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What are twin studies used for?

A research approach comparing identical (MZ) and fraternal (DZ) twins to estimate genetic contributions to traits.

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What are monozygotic (MZ) twins?

Identical twins arising from a single fertilized egg; share nearly all genes.

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What are dizygotic (DZ) twins?

Fraternal twins arising from two fertilized eggs; share about 50% of their genes.

11
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What is regression toward the mean?

A statistical phenomenon where extreme observations tend to be followed by averages on subsequent measurements.

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What is blending inheritance?

Outdated idea that offspring phenotypes are simply blends of parental traits; conflicts with genetic segregation.

13
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What is polygenic inheritance?

A trait controlled by many genes, each contributing a small effect.

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What is gene–environment interaction?

Genetic effects that depend on the environment; environment can modify gene expression.

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What is genotype?

The genetic makeup of an individual, i.e., which alleles they carry.

16
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What is phenotype?

The observable traits of an individual resulting from genetic and environmental factors.

17
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What are allele frequencies p and q?

Proportions of the two alleles in a population; for two alleles, p + q = 1.

18
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What is p in allele frequency?

Frequency of allele A in the population.

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What is q in allele frequency?

Frequency of allele a in the population.

20
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What is Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium?

Under random mating and no evolutionary forces, allele and genotype frequencies remain constant; genotype frequencies follow p^2, 2pq, q^2.

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What is the p^2 frequency in Hardy–Weinberg terms?

Genotype frequency of AA under Hardy–Weinberg.

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What is the 2pq frequency in Hardy–Weinberg terms?

Genotype frequency of Aa under Hardy–Weinberg.

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What is the q^2 frequency in Hardy–Weinberg terms?

Genotype frequency of aa under Hardy–Weinberg.

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What does random mating mean in Hardy–Weinberg context?

Assumption that mates are chosen independently of genotype; a key HW condition.

25
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What is population stratification?

Population structure or subgroups causing departures from Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.

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What is inbreeding?

Mating among related individuals; increases homozygosity but does not change allele frequencies.

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How is height used in HW discussions?

Height is an example of a complex trait used to illustrate polygenic and environmental influences.

28
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What is heterozygote advantage?

Heterozygotes have higher fitness than either homozygote, balancing allele frequencies (not HW equilibrium).

29
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What is genetic drift?

Random fluctuations in allele frequencies, stronger in small populations, reducing genetic diversity.

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What is a genetic bottleneck?

Sharp reductions in population size that reduce genetic diversity and alter allele frequencies.

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What is the founder effect?

A bottleneck where a new population is started by a small number of individuals.

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What is gene flow (immigration) in population genetics?

Movement of individuals between populations that changes allele frequencies.

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What are GWAS?

Genome-wide association studies; identify genetic variants associated with traits; explain only part of heritability and require large cohorts.

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What are concerns with genetic databases and privacy?

Expansion of genotype databases raises consent, privacy, and potential misuse concerns.

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What is GINA?

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act; US law prohibiting use of genetic information for health insurance decisions (not all insurances).

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What are ethics considerations in genetic testing?

Consent, privacy, potential discrimination, and impact on relatives.

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What is sickle cell trait's selective advantage?

Sickle-cell trait provides protection against malaria in heterozygotes (heterozygote advantage).

38
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What is sickle cell disease genetics?

Recessive disorder (homozygous HbS); heterozygotes gain some malaria protection but have health issues.

39
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What is frequency-dependent selection?

Fitness of an allele depends on its frequency in the population; can maintain diversity.

40
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What is positive frequency-dependent selection?

Fitness increases as the allele becomes more common (e.g., warning coloration).

41
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What does high heritability with rapid environmental changes imply?

Environmental factors can still substantially influence phenotypes despite high heritability.

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What is the population genetics objective?

Determine Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, compute allele frequencies, and predict changes under selection or other forces.

43
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What is a nucleotide?

The basic building block of DNA (and RNA) consisting of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous base.

44
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What is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid; the molecule that stores genetic information, usually a double helix.

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What is DNA vs RNA difference?

DNA uses deoxyribose and thymine; RNA uses ribose and uracil; DNA is usually double-stranded, RNA usually single-stranded.

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What is a phosphodiester bond?

Chemical linkage joining nucleotides in a DNA/RNA backbone between 5' phosphate and 3' hydroxyl.

47
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What does antiparallel mean in DNA?

Two DNA strands run in opposite 5'→3' directions, enabling base pairing.

48
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What are base pairs in DNA?

A pairs with T (two H-bonds); G pairs with C (three H-bonds).

49
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What is 5' to 3' polymerization?

DNA/RNA synthesis proceeds by adding nucleotides to the 3' end; templates read 3'→5'.

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What is a replication fork?

Y-shaped region where the double helix is unwound and replication occurs.

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What is a replication bubble?

Unwound DNA region containing two replication forks that proceed bidirectionally.

52
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What is helicase?

Enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix to create the replication fork.

53
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What is primase?

RNA polymerase that lays down RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis.

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What is DNA polymerase?

Enzyme that adds dNTPs to the growing DNA strand; works 5'→3' and has proofreading exonuclease activity.

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What is proofreading exonuclease activity?

3'→5' enzymatic activity that corrects misincorporated nucleotides during replication.

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What are Okazaki fragments?

Short DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand during replication.

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What does DNA ligase do?

Seals nicks between Okazaki fragments to form a continuous strand.

58
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What are telomeres?

Repeater DNA sequences at chromosome ends that protect genes during replication.

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What is telomerase?

Reverse transcriptase that extends telomeres using an RNA template.

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What is Sanger sequencing?

Chain-termination sequencing method using ddNTPs to produce fragments read by size/fluorescence.

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What is ddNTP?

Dideoxynucleotide; a base analog lacking 3' OH that terminates DNA synthesis.

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What is Illumina sequencing?

High-throughput sequencing by synthesis using reversible terminator nucleotides for massively parallel short reads.

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What is sequencing by synthesis (general)?

DNA is copied one base at a time with detection after each incorporation.

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What is a nucleosome core particle?

~146 bp of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer (H2A, H2B, H3, H4).

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What is a histone octamer?

Core protein complex (two each of H2A, H2B, H3, H4) around which DNA is wrapped.

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What is histone H1?

Non-core histone that helps stabilize higher-order chromatin structure.

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What are histone modifications?

Chemical changes to histone tails (e.g., acetylation, methylation) that regulate chromatin and gene expression.

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What is histone acetylation?

Addition of acetyl groups to lysines; generally promotes open chromatin and transcription.

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What is histone methylation?

Addition of methyl groups to histone tails; can repress or activate transcription depending on context.

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What is CpG methylation?

Methylation of cytosine in CpG dinucleotides; often associated with gene silencing.

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What is euchromatin?

Relatively open chromatin associated with active transcription.

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What is heterochromatin?

Tightly packed chromatin associated with gene silencing; includes facultative and constitutive forms.

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What is a Barr body?

Inactivated X chromosome in female somatic cells; contributes to dosage compensation and mosaicism.

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What is mosaicism?

Presence of two or more genetically distinct cell populations within an individual.

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What is a replication origin?

Specific chromosomal location where DNA replication initiates.

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What did the Meselson–Stahl experiment demonstrate?

DNA replication is semi-conservative; each new DNA molecule has one old and one new strand.

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What is semi-conservative replication?

A replication model where each daughter DNA molecule contains one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.

78
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What is mitosis?

Cell division producing two genetically identical diploid daughter cells for growth and maintenance.

79
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What is meiosis?

Cell division producing four genetically diverse haploid gametes; introduces genetic variation.

80
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What is synapsis?

Pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis to form bivalents.

81
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What is the synaptonemal complex?

Protein structure that holds homologous chromosomes together during meiosis I.

82
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What are chiasmata?

Points where crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

83
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What is disjunction?

Separation of chromosomes or sister chromatids during anaphase of mitosis or meiosis.

84
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What is nondisjunction?

Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate, leading to aneuploidy.

85
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What are monosomy and trisomy?

Monosomy: one copy of a chromosome; Trisomy: three copies of a chromosome.

86
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What is Turner syndrome?

Sex chromosome aneuploidy 45,X; female, short stature, often sterile.

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What is Klinefelter syndrome?

Sex chromosome aneuploidy 47,XXY; male, typically tall and sterile.

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What is Down syndrome?

Autosomal trisomy 21; characteristic features and increased risk of health issues.

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What is reciprocal translocation?

Exchange of segments between nonhomologous chromosomes; can affect gene regulation and meiosis.

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What is inversion in meiosis?

Chromosome segment is reversed end to end; can affect gene order and recombination.

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What is deletion?

Loss of a chromosome segment; can have severe phenotypic consequences.

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What is duplication?

Gain of a chromosome segment; can provide material for evolution.

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What is karyotype?

A visual display of an individual's chromosomes, typically arranged by size and banding.

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What do p and q arms refer to?

p is the short arm and q is the long arm of a chromosome.

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What is euploid?

Chromosome number that is an exact multiple of the haploid set.

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What is aneuploid?

Chromosome number that is not a multiple of the haploid set.

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What is diploid?

Two complete sets of chromosomes (2n) typical of somatic human cells.

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What is haploid?

One complete set of chromosomes (n); typical of gametes.

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What is a chromosome?

A DNA-containing structure with a centromere, packaged with proteins for organization and segregation.

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What is a chromatid?

One of the two identical DNA molecules formed after DNA replication; held at the centromere.