Laura Nappi Practice Exams Qs

Which interaction occurs between a photon and atomic nucleus?

A) Coherent

B) Compton

C) Pair production

D) Photoelectric effect

C) Pair production

A ring badge worn by a physicist handling radioactive sources is a type of:

A) OSL

B) TLD

C) Diode

B) TLD

Which of the following is NOT a common site for lung cancer metastasis?

A) Bone

B) Brain

C) Adrenal glands

D) Pancreas

D) Pancreas

Epinephrine is produced by what organ?

adrenal glands

The most common location for distant metastasis of sarcomas is to:

lung

Therapeutic ratio formula

normal tissue TD / tumor lethal dose

TD 5/5 Brain

45 Gy or 4500 cGy

When treating a chest wall with a supraclavicular field, which of the following techniques would be best to avoid beam overlap?

A) Half Beam Block

B) Cast Block

C) Couch angles

D) Electron cone

A and C

What is the largest gland in the human body?

liver

As field size increases, scatter will _____________.

increase

What is the material that is used for OSLs?

Aluminum oxide

What percentage of the beam is permitted to be transmitted through the collimating jaws?

0.5%

The x-ray interaction in which the photon's energy is completely absorbed is:

photoelectric

Frequency is measured in:

Hertz (Hz)

The predominant photon interaction during portal imaging would be:

Compton scattering

To preserve the skin sparing properties of the MV photon beams, the compensator must be placed at least ____ from the skin.

15-20 cm

The patient is positioned supine, head first. The AP SSD is 88cm. Calculate the new SSD after performing a 2 cm posterior iso shift.

86 cm

A procedure that removes skin cancers one layer at a time is called:

Moh's surgery

Backscatter has a direct relationship with:

field size

If a partial arc is utilized for a treatment & the tumor is located 8 cm below the skin surface, where should the beam be aimed?

A) at the tumor

B) distal to the tumor

C) at the skin

B) distal to the tumor

The probability of bremsstrahlung production:

A) decreases with atomic number

B) increases with atomic number

C) is independent of atomic number

D) decreases with the square of the atomic number

B) increases with atomic number

How often should sealed radioactive sources be checked for leaks?

6 months

All of the following can affect absorbed dose with depth EXCEPT:

A) Distance from source

B) Air temperature

C) Field size

B) air temperature

The unit of exposure in air is the?

A) roentgen

B) planck

C) curie

D) rem

A) roentgen

Lymph drainage from the skin of the scrotum is likely to:

Inguinal and iliac nodes

Contrast is used for the patient simulation. Afterwards, the patient has symptoms of edema, itching & sneezing. These symptoms may be indicative of:

Aanphylactic shock

A wedge with a transmission factor of 0.91 means that ______ is attenuated by the beam.

9%. this means that 91% of the beam is transmitted. So, 9% is attenuated.

What is the annual dose limit to the general public?

1 mSv or 0.1 rem

When calculating for shielding for the linear area control room, which is directly monitored by the radiation safety office, it should be limited to an exposure of:

A) 1 mrem/week

B) 10 mrem/week

C) 100 mrem/week

C) 100 mrem/week

For proper body mechanics, the center of gravity at the _______ when standing.

A) pelvis

B) knees

C) spine

A) pelvis

Radioactive source strength and rate of decay is defined by:

Activity

The most appropriate sign to hang outside of a patient's hospital room while receiving an LDR treatment is:

Caution- Radioactive Materials

5 cm of lead is equivalent to _____ of cerrobend.

6 cm; multiply by 1.2

What is the SI unit for dose equivalent?

Sievert (Sv)

MLCs:

A) High atomic materials

B) Can move independently

C) Provide conformal shaping

D) Acceptable transmission is 5%

A, B and C

The most common histology of the endometrium is:

Adenocarcinoma

Which type of radiation has two protons and two neutrons, is released from an unstable heavy nuclei, and has a high LET?

Alpha particles

Leukemia in which the stem cells contain the Philadelphia chromosome:

A) ALL

B) AML

C) CLL

D) CML

D) CML

The melting point of Cerrobend is:

165 degrees F or 70 degrees C

The organ that's primary function is to filter blood is:

kidney

Which type of radiation penetrates the LEAST in human tissue?

A) Beta particles

B) Alpha particles

C) X-rays

D) Gamma rays

B) Alpha particles

With the collimator at 0, the Y jaw will represent:

A) Lateral borders of the treatment field

B) Superior & inferior treatment borders

B) Superior & inferior treatment borders

Areas that are restricted to 2 mrem/week are called:

A) Restricted areas

B) Unrestricted areas

C) Controlled areas

D) Uncontrolled areas

B and D

The hinge angle of parallel opposed fields is:

180 degrees

The hinge angle of orthogonal fields is:

90 degrees

A bone marrow transplant from a sibling is known as:

A) Autologous

B) Allogenic

B) Allogenic

Decreases skin sparing:

A) Bolus

B) Wedge

C) Compensator

D) Beam spoiler

A and D

The treatment accessory used for total body irradiation is:

beam spoiler

The treatment accessory that was replaced by IMRT:

compensator

The main purpose of gaps when treating CSI is to avoid hotspots to this organ at risk:

spinal cord

The main source of collimator scatter is:

A) Target

B) Flattening filter

C) Bending magnet

B) Flattening filter

(T/F) A treatment with a wedge would require more MU than the same treatment without the wedge.

TRUE

The breast tissue located close to the axilla is called:

Tail of Spence

What is the minimum testing frequency for leaf position accuracy?

A) Daily

B) Weekly

C) Monthly

D) Annually

C) Monthly

Patient A has C. Diff. and the treatment couch was not cleaned after their treatment. Patient B touched the treatment couch and then contracted C. Diff. The treatment couch is considered a:

A) Fomite

B) Vector

C) Host

A) Fomite

I-131 has a half-life of 8 days. How many days will it take for the activity to reduce to less than 2%?

48 days

What are beam spoilers used for?

TBI; similar to bolus because it absorbs some of the buildup beam

A photon strikes an object and scattered radiation occurs. This is due to:

A) Compton effects

B) Photoelectric effects

C) Characteristic effects

A) Compton effects

Palladium 103 seeds are most commonly used for:

Prostate LDR

Stochastic effects are also called:

probabilistic effect

If the planned SSD is 100 cm, but the patient was accidentally treated at 99 cm, this would be an example of underdose.

false; this would be an overdose.

A medical event is when the total dose delivered to a patient is at least _____ different from prescribed dose.

A) 10%

B) 20%

C) 50%

D) 75%

B) 20%

A treatment with POP fields that does NOT use MLCs or blocks should be charged as:

A) Simple simulation

B) Simple treatment

C) Complex simulation

D) Complex treatment

B) Simple treatment

The upper part of the stomach is called:

A) Pyloric

B) Lesser curvature

C) Greater curvature

D)Fundus

D) Fundus

T/F: Cancers in the esophagus can demonstrate skip metastasis.

TRUE

Which of the following radiation measurements takes into account the quality factor?

A) Rem

B) Rad

C) Gray

D) Exposure

A) Rem

Which diagnostic scan shows the tumor's activity?

PET

A patient with MRSA should be on which precaution?

contact

Tumors within the vagina are MOST likely to spread to which lymph nodes?

Inguinal

The most common bone tumor that often occurs in extremities is:

Osteosarcoma

Tumors in the epithelium are classified as:

carcinoma

In TNM staging, stage IV indicates:

distant metastasis

The energy range of a superficial therapy unit is:

50-150 kV

______ is how long the machine will run per week.

workload

The daily check for CT number of water is 0 +/- __

5 HU

Research shows that the Epstein Barr virus is linked to ________ cancer.

Nasopharynx

Left breast tangents should be billed as:

complex treatment

The most common pathology of tumors in the parotid are:

Adenocarcinoma

A patient has disseminated cancer, what is the best mode of treatment?

Chemotherapy

Benign tumors are only dangerous to the patient if they:

are pressing on critical organs

T/F: A malignant tumor may spread to distant parts of the body through local invasion.

FALSE

Etiology is defined as:

the study of what causes a disease

Which type of consent is typical for emergency situations?

implied consent

A document that defines the patient's health care choices when they are terminally sick:

Living will

Sedating a patient for his or her treatment without a doctor's order is an example of:

False imprisonment

Which is the correct order of the grieving process as defined by Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross?

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

At least how much bone marrow must be within radiation treatment field for bone marrow depression to occur?

25%

What is the most common type of nosocomial infection?

Bladder infection- UTI

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

A) Patient

B) Healthcare Worker

C) Water

D) Protozoa

D) Protozoa

The most common method of infection transmission is?

Contact

What is needed for indirect contact to occur?

A) Vector

B) Vehicles

C) Droplets

D) Fomites

E) A, B and D

F) All of the above

E) A, B and D

T/F Droplet particles travel further than airborne particles.

FALSE

The type of shock that will most likely occur from contrast media is:

anaphylactic

Which of the following PPE should be put on first?

gown

Which of the following PPE should be removed last?

mask

Which of the following are NOT sterile areas in a surgical room?

from the waist down, person's back

A tumor marker test for testicular cancers is:

HCG

A tumor marker test for liver cancers is:

AFP

This form of biopsy has a cutting tip to obtain larger samples:

core needle biopsy

The stage of an ARS when the patient experiences nausea and vomiting is:

prodromal