Exam #2 Review

Water should not be used to try to remove a ____ that becomes lodged in a person’s ear.

pea

Splinters can generally be removed with _____ and splinter forceps.

a sterile needle

If a patient sprains an ankle, ice should be applied for the first _____ hours, or until the swelling is reduced.

48-72

The only first aid measure for a dislocation is to ____ the affected area and get to a medical office or hospital.

immobilize

Animal bites are considered dangerous because of the possibility of infection or the transmission of:

rabies

With all human bites, a tetanus injection must be administered to patients if they have not received one within ___ years.

five

A(n) ___ burn is caused by contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of acids or alkalines.

chemical

Ferning markings on a patient’s body are characteristic of burns caused by:

lightning

When a wound has been bleeding severely, a _____ should be applied securely and the patient taken for emergency medical care immediately.

pressure bandage

An injury on the arms or legs will require the dressing to be held in place with a ____ bandage.

spiral

A wound on the palm or back of the hand should be protected with a dressing and a ____ bandage.

figure-eight

Bone partially bent and partially broken; often occurs in children

greenstick fracture

Crushing or splintering of the bone

comminuted fracture

Fragments or portions of the bone pressed down into the skull; can be into the brain and surrounding tissue

depressed fracture

Skin intact over the fracture; the bone is completely broken into two or more pieces

closed fracture

Open wound over the ends of the fractured bones; often an end of the bone is visible

open fracture

Fracture of the distal end of the radius bone in the wrist

colle’s fracture

Diagonal fracture of a bone

oblique fracture

One bone fragment is wedged into another bone fragment

impacted fracture

Fracture crosses the bone at a 90-degree angle to the bone’s axis

transverse fracture

Fracture twists around a long bone

spiral fracture

Fracture of the lower part of the fibula with serious injury of the lower tibial articulation, usually a chipping off of a portion of the medial malleolus or rupture of the medial ligament

potts fracture

A second-degree burn is classified as:

psrtial-thickness

Accomplished with an ACE wrap or ankle brace

compression

Wound made with a pointed object, such as an ice pick, knife, or nail

puncture wound

Used to hold a dressing in place on the forehead, eyes, or ears

cravat

Common injury after engaging in any strenuous activity that one is not accustomed to doing

strain

A third- or fourth-degree burn is classified as:

full-thickness burn

Wound caused by a sharp object that leaves a clean cut

incision

A first-degree burn is classified as:

superficial

Scrape of the epidermis with dots of blood and the possible presence of foreign material, such as dirt or gravel

abrasion

Substance or object that becomes lodged in any part of the human body

foreign body

Type of wound causing tearing of body tissue

laceration

injury that is usually the result of overuse or trauma from twisting the joint

sprain

Wound in which the skin is torn off and there is profuse bleeding

avulsion

The resistance of one surface to the motion of another surface rubbing over it

friction

A severe and rapid multisystem allergic reaction

anaphylaxis

A thin sharp piece of wood embedded in tissue is called a(n):

splinter

An injury to living tissue, especially an injury involving a cut or break in the skin is called a(n):

wound

Abbreviation for rest, ice, compression, elevation, referring to the treatment for sprains and strains

RICE

A type of burn that occurs after contact with faulty electrical wiring, a child chewing on an electrical cord, or from downed high-voltage power lines

electrical burn

A simple or compound substance used in chemical processes; a type of burn from contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of acids or alkalines

chemical

Characterized by heat; heat activated; a type of burn caused by residential fires; automobile accidents; playing with matches; accidents with gasoline, space heaters, or firecrackers; scalding water from the stove or tub; and coming in contact with curling irons, stoves, or clothing irons

thermal burn

A condition in which the pulse becomes rapid and weak, the blood pressure drops, and the patient is pale and clammy

shock

An acute viral disease of the nervous system of warm-blooded animals; usually transmitted by the bite of a animal carrying the disease

rabies

Burn that can be caused by contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of acids

chemical burn

Burn that can be caused by firecrackers

thermal burn

Burn that can be caused from downed high-voltage power lines

electrical burn

Burn that can be caused by accidents with gasoline or space heaters

thermal burn

Burn that can be caused by contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of alkalines

chemical burn

Burn that can be caused by overexposure to the sun

radiation burn

Burn that can be caused from a lightning strike

electrical burn

Burn that can be caused from coming in contact with curling irons, stoves, or clothing irons

thermal burn

True or False: Foreign bodies that become lodged under the upper eyelid can often be removed by pulling the upper lid down over the lower lid.

True

True or False: Water should always be used to try to remove a foreign object that is lodged in the ear.

False

True or False: Ice should be applied to a sprained ankle for the first 5–10 hours to reduce swelling.

False

True or False: A sprained ankle should be elevated for two to three days after the injury.

True

True or False: The only first aid measure for a dislocation is to immobilize the affected area and seek immediate medical care.

True

True or False: Animal bites are considered dangerous only because they may cause bleeding, but they do not carry any risk of infection

False

True or False: When treating human bites, a tetanus shot should be administered if the patient has not had one in the last five years

True

True or False: A chemical burn can be caused by contact with, ingestion of, or inhalation of acids or alkaline substances

True

True or False: Ferning markings on the skin are characteristic of burns caused by lightning strikes.

True

True or False: A third-degree burn, even when covering less than 2% of the body, is classified as a severe burn.

False

True or False: A figure-eight bandage is used to hold dressings in place on the arms and legs.

False

True or False: A wound on the palm or back of the hand should be protected with a cravat bandage.

False

True or False: The care instructions for a bandaged wound include monitoring for signs of circulation impairment, infection, and feeling pain or fever.

True

When a patient expires in the office, who is typically notified to pick up the body for postmortem examination?

coroner

When a patient goes into cardiac arrest, each minute of ventricular fibrillation results in an approximate ___ percent decrease in survival.

10

When a patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR is necessary ____ using an AED.

before and after

A subtle condition is one that:

is hidden, not apparent, and treacherous

When injuries are ____, multiple sites are usually involved and considerable medical attention is required.

severe

When patients experience diaphoresis, they are in danger of losing a large amount of:

body salt

Bleeding from a vein will produce:

a steady flow of dark red blood

An abdominal thrust is used to relieve an obstructed airway in adults and children over the age of:

one year

Trained personnel usually provided by the police and/or fire departments:

first responders

This should include guidelines to follow when dealing with emergencies

office policy manual

Total, abrupt, and unexpected loss of heart function is called:

sudden cardiac arrest

Used in addition to CPR if the heart is in arrest

automated external defibrillator (AED)

Mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is called:

artificial respiration

Any situation in which an individual suddenly becomes ill or has an injury or circumstances calling for decided action is called a(n):

medical emergency

Contains the supplies and equipment necessary to handle medical emergencies that may arise in the medical office

crash cart

Required to establish the cause of death that is recorded on the death certificate if the patient has not been examined by a provider within a fairly recent time frame

autopsy

Designed by the American Medical Association as a way for individuals with certain medical conditions to alert health care workers of their conditions when they are unable to

universal emergency medical identification symbol

Pads placed on a patient’s chest when using an AED

electrodes

device placed around the nose when administering oxygen to a patient

nasal cannula

Excessive, uncontrolled bleeding is termed:

hemorrhage

Performed to remove an object that has been dislodged from a patient’s airway but has not been expelled from the mouth

finger sweep

Medical term for fainting

syncope

condition that causes a buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries

atherosclerosis

Result of a ruptured blood vessel in the brain or an occlusion of a blood vessel

cerebrovascular accident

Medical term for a heart attack

myocardial infarction

Occurs when your body loses heat faster than it can produce it, resulting in a dangerously low body temperature

hypothermia

Severe, involuntary contraction of muscles that first causes a patient to become rigid and then to have uncontrollable movements

seizure

A strong-smelling inhalant used to revive a person who has fainted

ammonia

An abnormal deep stupor from which a person cannot be aroused by external stimuli

coma

To exert force against/press against

compression

A combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Condition that continues for a long time, is returning; or is not acute

chronic

condition having a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and short course

acute

The path that air follows to get into and out of the lungs

airway