HEMA 2: Hemostasis & Vascular System Lecture Review

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering key concepts and details related to Hemostasis and the Vascular System that students need to know for their examination.

Last updated 8:28 PM on 1/21/26
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90 Terms

1
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What is the process responsible for confining a clot to the site of injury?

Fibrinolysis

2
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Which component is considered the 'ON SWITCH' for the Extrinsic Pathway?

Tissue Factor

3
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Primary hemostasis primarily involves which two components?

Platelets and Vascular system

4
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What is the goal of Secondary Hemostasis?

Formation of a stable fibrin clot

5
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Which stage of hemostasis is described as a 'rapid and short-lived response'?

Primary Hemostasis

6
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What is the main enzyme of the fibrinolytic system?

Plasmin

7
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Inadequate hemostasis leads to what condition?

Hemorrhage

8
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Which vascular layer anchors the blood vessel to surrounding tissues?

Tunica Externa (Adventitia)

9
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Which layer contains smooth muscle cells?

Tunica Media

10
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The vascular intima is mainly composed of which cell type?

Endothelial cells

11
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In a healthy state, what is the role of endothelial cells?

Anticoagulant

12
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Which substance secreted by endothelial cells acts as a potent vasodilator?

Prostacyclin (PGI_2)

13
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What is the role of Nitric Oxide (NO) in hemostasis?

Induces vasodilation and inhibits platelet activation

14
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Which glycosaminoglycan enhances the activity of Antithrombin?

Heparan sulfate

15
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Thrombomodulin acts as a cofactor in the activation of which protein?

Protein C

16
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What does the Protein C pathway specifically digest?

Factors V and VIII

17
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Which enzyme cleaves ultra-large vWF multimers?

ADAMTS-13

18
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Where is Von Willebrand Factor (vWF) stored in endothelial cells?

Weibel-Palade bodies

19
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What is the primary initiator of the extrinsic coagulation cascade?

Tissue Factor (Factor III)

20
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What is the function of Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI)?

Limits activation of the TF:VIIa:Xa complex

21
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Platelets originate from the cytoplasm of which bone marrow cell?

Megakaryocyte

22
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What is the primary regulator of platelet production?

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

23
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Where is the primary source of Thrombopoietin located?

Liver

24
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What is endomitosis in megakaryocytes?

DNA replication without cytokinesis

25
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Which maturation stage of megakaryocytes is the largest?

MK-III (Megakaryocyte)

26
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What are the membrane-lined channels in platelets called?

Demarcation Membrane System (DMS)

27
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How many platelets does a single megakaryocyte typically shed?

2,000–4,000

28
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What is the average lifespan of a circulating platelet?

8–9 days

29
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What is the normal reference range for platelets?

150–400 × 10^9/L

30
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Where is one-third of the body’s platelets sequestered?

Spleen

31
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What is the 'Control Center' for platelet activation?

Dense Tubular System (DTS)

32
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Which structure maintains the platelet's discoid shape?

Microtubules (Tubulin)

33
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The peripheral zone of a platelet includes what?

Glycocalyx and plasma membrane

34
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How many Alpha granules are typically found in a single platelet?

50–80

35
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Which protein is found in Platelet Alpha granules?

Fibrinogen and vWF

36
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Which of the following is found in Platelet Dense granules?

ADP and ATP

37
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What does the mnemonic KAPASA refer to?

Contents of Alpha granules

38
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Which receptor binds to vWF in high shear stress?

GP Ib/IX/V

39
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Which receptor binds directly to collagen?

GP VI

40
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What is the major aggregation receptor that binds fibrinogen?

GP IIb/IIIa

41
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Which enzyme converts Arachidonic Acid into Prostaglandin Endoperoxides?

Cyclooxygenase (COX)

42
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What does Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) promote?

Aggregation and vasoconstriction

43
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What shape change occurs when a platelet becomes activated?

Disc-shaped to spherical with pseudopods

44
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Aspirin inhibits platelet function by acetylating which enzyme?

Cyclooxygenase

45
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Which agonist binds to the P2Y1 and P2Y12 receptors?

ADP

46
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Which receptor-ligand interaction inhibits platelet activation?

Prostacyclin (PGI_2)-IP3

47
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What amino acid sequence in fibrinogen is targeted by GP IIb/IIIa?

RGD (Arginine-Glycine-Aspartate)

48
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What acts as the 'glue' between platelets and collagen?

Von Willebrand Factor (vWF)

49
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What does the 'Release Reaction' refer to?

Secretion of granule contents during activation

50
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Most coagulation factors are synthesized in which organ?

Liver

51
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Which coagulation factor is NOT synthesized in the liver?

Tissue Factor (Factor III)

52
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What are coagulation factors that circulate in an inactive form called?

Zymogens

53
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Which coagulation factor is known as 'Fibrinogen'?

Factor I

54
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Which coagulation factor is known as 'Prothrombin'?

Factor II

55
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Which coagulation factor is a transglutaminase?

Factor XIII

56
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What does the 'Intrinsic Tenase' complex consist of?

IXa + VIIIa + Ca + PL

57
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What does the 'Prothrombinase' complex consist of?

Xa + Va + Ca + PL

58
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Which factor is responsible for cross-linking fibrin?

Factor XIII

59
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What does the mnemonic 'Foolish People Try Climbing…' help remember?

Names of the coagulation factors

60
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What is the final stage of hemostatic activation?

Fibrinolysis

61
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Plasminogen is converted to Plasmin by which activator?

Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA)

62
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What allows plasminogen to bind to lysine residues on fibrin?

Kringles

63
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What is the primary inhibitor of TPA and UPA?

Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)

64
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When does fibrinolysis usually begin?

Several hours after clot formation

65
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What is the vitamin deficiency that causes Scurvy?

Vitamin C

66
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Which disorder is characterized by 'corkscrew hairs'?

Scurvy

67
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What is Solar purpura primarily due to?

Lack of collagen support for small blood vessels

68
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What condition involves the deposition of misfolded proteins?

Amyloidosis

69
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What are 'Stress platelets'?

Marked larger platelets with ribosomes and RER

70
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Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) is caused by autoantibodies against what?

Platelet surface glycoproteins

71
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In Acute ITP, what is often the platelet count?

72
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What triad does Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) present with?

Hemolytic anemia, Renal failure, Thrombocytopenia

73
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What is 'Typical' HUS most often associated with?

Shiga toxin from E. coli O157:H7

74
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What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) characterized as?

Consumptive coagulopathy

75
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Which condition is due to clonal proliferation of megakaryocytes?

Essential Thrombocythemia

76
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What is the platelet count typically in Essential Thrombocythemia?

1 million/μL

77
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Which symptom describes throbbing pain in hands and feet in ET?

Erythromelalgia

78
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Reactive Thrombocytosis can be caused by which conditions?

Iron deficiency anemia

79
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What deficiency is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier Syndrome?

GP Ib/IX/V

80
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Which stage of hemostasis involves blood vessels and platelets?

Primary

81
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What does 'Thrombocytopoiesis' refer to?

Platelet production

82
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Which hemostatic factor is Extrinsic?

Tissue Factor (TF)

83
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What differentiates a 'white clot' from a 'bulky red clot'?

White clots are platelets/vWF; red clots have fibrin and RBCs.

84
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Which cytokine acts with TPO for stem cell differentiation?

IL-11

85
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Which molecule mediates the switch from mitosis to endomitosis in megakaryocytes?

TPO

86
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What is the MPV (Mean Platelet Volume) of a normal platelet?

8–10 fL

87
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Which system allows endocytosis and secretion for alpha-granules?

Surface Connecting Canalicular System (SCCS)

88
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Which type of receptor is essential for initial platelet adhesion?

GP Ib-IX-V

89
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What is the significance of platelet 'satellitism'?

Artifact related to EDTA-induced antibody effects

90
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What is the primary test for high-dose Heparin therapy?

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)