Comprehensive Medical, Pharmacology, ECG, Infection Control, Law, and Phlebotomy Quizlet

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366 Terms

1
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Which hormone is made in the pancreas and released into the bloodstream as glucose rises?

Insulin

<p>Insulin</p>
2
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What is the brand name for docusate sodium?

Colace

<p>Colace</p>
3
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How much Tylenol should be administered to a child with an axillary temperature of 39.2 degrees C if the prescribed dose is 240 mg and the concentration is 160 mg/5 mL?

7.5 mL

4
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How often should Metoprolol (Lopressor) 40mg be taken for hypertension?

Twice per day

5
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How much Amoxicillin should be administered for a first dose of 150 mg if the available amount is 500 mg in 5 mL?

1.5 mL

6
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How many capsules of Ampicillin 500 mg should be dispensed for a prescription of bid for 10 days?

20 capsules

7
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What is the correct action when administering medication sublingually?

Placing the medication under the tongue

8
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What is the correct instruction for taking medication by the buccal route?

Dissolve the medication between the cheek and gum

9
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At what angle should a needle be positioned for a self subcutaneous injection?

90 degrees

10
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What is the appropriate injection site for intradermal allergy testing?

Forearm

11
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Which muscle is the appropriate site for an injection in a child less than 1 year of age?

Vastus lateralis

12
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What is the correct site for administering a HepB vaccine to an infant?

Vastus lateralis

13
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What angle should a subcutaneous insulin injection be given?

45 degrees

14
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What is the parenteral method of administering medications?

Includes intradermal, subcutaneous, intramuscular, and intravenous routes

15
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Which medication is administered by the IM route to treat strep throat?

Penicillin (Bicilin-L-A)

16
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What should the medical assistant ask first if a patient's wife reports dizziness after applying a transdermal nitroglycerin patch?

Are you wearing gloves when applying the patch?

17
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What is the purpose of The Joint Commission's 'Do Not Use' abbreviation list?

To reduce the number of medication errors caused by incorrect use of medical terminology

18
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How should the medical assistant explain the prescription of amoxicillin 250mg 1 tab p.o. q.i.d. to the patient?

Take one pill by mouth four times a day

19
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What is the abbreviation for milliliter?

mL

20
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What does the abbreviation 'susp' mean in medical terminology?

Suspension, a mixture of small medication particles into a liquid form

21
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What is the abbreviation for tablet?

Tab

22
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What is the abbreviation for injection?

inj.

23
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What does the abbreviation 'AU' mean?

Both ears

24
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What does the abbreviation 'OU' mean?

Both eyes

25
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What does the abbreviation 'gtt' mean?

Drops

26
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How should medication taken twice daily be documented?

bid

27
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What do the abbreviations o.d., o.s., and o.u. refer to?

Eye

28
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What does the abbreviation 'hs' mean?

At bedtime

29
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What does the abbreviation 'Rx' mean?

Prescription

30
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How should a medication administered through a nasogastric feeding tube be documented?

pg

31
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What term indicates that a blood sample clumped, requiring a redraw?

Hemolysis

32
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What should the medical assistant verify immediately prior to giving any medication?

Right dose, right route, right time, right patient, right medication

33
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Which reference allows the medical assistant to identify a medication by looking at a pill?

PDR (Physicians' Desk Reference)

34
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What classification does albuterol belong to?

Bronchodilator

35
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Which bloodborne disease has an immunization available for prevention?

Hepatitis B

36
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What are the five rights of medication administration?

Right patient, right medication, right dose

37
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What are the six rights of medication administration?

Right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, right tolerance.

38
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What is Reye's syndrome?

A serious condition that can occur in children and teenagers who take aspirin during viral infections, leading to liver and brain damage.

39
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What side effect is likely from taking too much metoprolol?

Hypotension (low blood pressure).

40
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What product can cause a drug-herb interaction?

St. John's wort.

41
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What condition can ototoxic medications cause?

Tinnitus (ringing in the ears).

42
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What are reliable sources for medication information?

Physician's Desk Reference, Dosage handbook, Pharmaceutical package inserts.

43
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Which immunization should be avoided for patients on prednisone?

MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella).

44
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What is a placebo?

An inactive substance that does not contain actual medication and has no therapeutic effect.

45
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What infections do DTaP and Tdap vaccines protect against?

Pertussis (whooping cough).

46
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What is the most likely source of Hepatitis A infection?

A hamburger from a local fast food restaurant.

47
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Which immunization contains an inactivated pathogen?

IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine).

48
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What is equivalent to 5 mL in household measurements?

1 teaspoon (1 tsp).

49
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What type of medication treats a nonproductive cough?

Antitussive.

50
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What condition is alprazolam (Xanax) prescribed for?

Anxiety.

51
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What type of medication inhibits blood clotting?

Anticoagulants.

52
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What medication is prescribed for gastric reflux?

Omeprazole (Prilosec).

53
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What medication lowers cholesterol?

Atorvastatin calcium (Lipitor).

54
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What is commonly prescribed for major depressive disorder?

Duloxetine (Cymbalta).

55
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What do vasodilators do?

Open blood vessels, reducing cardiac demand.

56
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What medication relieves pain and reduces fever?

Ibuprofen.

57
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What is the primary use of nitroglycerin?

To treat angina pectoris.

58
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What type of medication causes pupil dilation?

Mydriatic agents.

59
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What does hydrocortisone reduce?

Inflammation.

60
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What allergy contraindicates sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim?

Sulfa allergy.

61
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What medication is given during acute chest pain?

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat).

62
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What medication is used for status asthmaticus?

Albuterol sulfate (Proventil HFA).

63
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Which patient is likely to respond more strongly to medications?

77-year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

64
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What medication is prescribed for persistent nausea and vomiting?

Ondansetron (Zofran).

65
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What do antibiotics do?

Kill microorganisms.

66
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What medication is used for CHF with pitting edema?

Diuretic.

67
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What nutritional recommendation is likely for cystitis?

Increased clear fluids.

68
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What should a medical assistant do when calling in a prescription?

Wait for the pharmacist to repeat back prescription information before ending the call.

69
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What instructions should be given for a fentanyl transdermal patch?

Apply on intact skin, avoiding areas with excess body hair; rotate sites to prevent skin irritation; write the date and time of application on the patch.

70
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What needle gauge is commonly used to draw up medications?

18G.

71
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What position should the needle tip be in during an immunization?

Bevel up.

72
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What should be documented after a second dose of HBV immunization?

The date and time of the administration.

73
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What is the Z-track method?

A technique used for administering injectable medications to prevent leakage by pulling the skin taut during injection.

74
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What angle should be used when administering an injectable medication using the Z-track method?

90-degree angle maintaining traction on the skin.

75
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What is the correct action when administering eye drops?

Place each drop individually in the inner canthus of the eye.

76
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How are nitroglycerin tablets administered to treat Angina?

Sublingually (under the tongue).

77
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What is the generic name for Coumadin?

Warfarin.

78
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What is the generic name for Motrin?

Ibuprofen.

79
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What type of medication is typically given for a temperature of 101.4F?

Antipyretic.

80
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What is the abbreviation for electroencephalogram?

EEG.

81
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Which diagnostic procedure uses ultrasound to display an image of the heart?

Echocardiogram.

82
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What is the first action after validating an ECG order?

Explain the procedure to the patient.

83
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What should be done prior to exercise stress testing?

Inform the patient of expectations during the testing.

84
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What should be done when performing an ECG on an obese patient with wandering baseline?

Ensure good skin preparation and that the examination table is not touching the wall.

85
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How can a medical assistant help a patient with Parkinson's during an ECG?

Have the patient put the arm under buttocks to minimize movement, ensuring proper electrode placement and clear signaling.

86
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Where should the V4 electrode be placed?

Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space.

87
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What actions should be taken when placing electrodes for a 24-hour Holter monitor?

Avoid scars and incisions, and ensure electrodes are secured properly.

88
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What is the normal duration of a QRS complex on an ECG?

0.04-0.12 seconds.

89
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What should be done if wandering baselines are noticed in precordial leads?

Re-evaluate chest leads.

90
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What indicates a normal sinus rhythm?

A PR interval of 0.14 seconds, QRS complex of 0.10 seconds, QT interval of 0.40 seconds, and HR of 78.

91
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What should a medical assistant do after recording an abnormal ECG rhythm?

Monitor the patient for deterioration of symptoms.

92
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What does the P wave of an ECG indicate?

Atrial contraction.

93
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Which rhythm should prompt immediate notification to the provider?

Ventricular fibrillation.

94
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Which ECG lead records the electrical activity of the inferior surface of the left ventricle?

Lead II.

95
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What indicates a need for better understanding of standard precautions?

The patient should wear a gown, gloves, and mask to maintain contact-droplet isolation.

96
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What is a noncommunicable skin disorder?

A skin condition that cannot be transmitted from one person to another.

97
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What is alopecia?

A medical condition characterized by hair loss.

98
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What is impetigo?

A highly contagious bacterial skin infection that causes red sores, often around the nose and mouth.

99
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What is scabies?

A contagious skin condition caused by a mite that burrows into the skin, leading to intense itching and a rash.

100
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What is poison ivy?

A plant that causes an allergic skin reaction upon contact, characterized by itching, redness, and blisters.

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