Locomotory system - Osteology

Femur is a long bone

Yes

Scapula is a long bone

No

Sacrum is a short bone

No

Patella is a sesamoid bone

Yes

Scaphoid is a flat bone

No

The clavicle possesses a rougher upper surface

No

The scapula possesses an articular surface on its lateral angle

Yes

The fibula is taking part in the formation of the knee joint

No

The radius is the bone of the antebrachium that is located on the same side as the thumb

Yes

Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the:

A) supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa

B) superior border, medial angle, inferior border

C) coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine

D) olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process

C) coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine

The component bones on the pectoral girdle include

A) ilium and pubis

B) clavicle and scapula

C) scapula and humerus

D) radius and ulna

B) clavicle and scapula

The structures of the humerus that accept projections of the ulna in flexion and extension are

A) intertubercular groove

B) coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa

C) medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle

D) radial fossa, trochlear notch

B) coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa

The growth in length of a bone is at

A) articular cartilage

B) center of the shaft

C) diaphyseal line

D) epiphyseal line

D) epiphyseal line (growth plate)

A structural feature of a typical cervical vertebra is

A) a transverse foramen

B) a dens

C) a long spinous process

D) a fovea

A) a transverse foramen

The head of the femur articulates with the

A) glenoid cavity

B) acetabulum

C) obturator foramen

D) patella

B) acetabulum

Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the

A) interochanteric line, interochanteric chest, patellar surface

B) anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus

C) lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseus crest

D) medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest

B) anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus

The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the writs joints are the:

A) scaphoid and lunate

B) triangular (triquetrum) and pisiform

C) lunate and pisiform

A) scaphoid and lunate

The medial malleolus is a process on the

A) tibia

B) calcaneus

C) fibula

D) talus

A) tibia

The roughened vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft is the

A) greater trochanter

B) linea aspera

C) patellar surface

D) fovea capitis

B) linea aspera

Which portion of the sternum attaches to the greatest number of ribs

A) manubrium

B) body

C) xiphoid process

D) all attach to the same number

B) body

Sulcus nervi ulnaris is placed:

A) on the shaft (body) of the humerus

B) behind the lateral epicondyle of humerus

C) on the shaft of the ulna

D) behind the medial epicondyle on humerus

D) behind the medial epicondyle on humerus

What are the names of bones in human thumb?

A) condyle and meniscus

B) middle and distal phalanges

C) proximal and distal phalanges

D) trapezoid and hamate

C) proximal and distal phalanges

Where in the body can the pisiform bone be found?

A) ankle

B) wrist

C) coccyx

D) spine

B) wrist

What is the more familiar name for the thoracic cage?

A) rib cage

B) hands

C) ankles

D) hands

A) rib cage

Where in the human body would you find the cuneiform bones?

A) throat

B) hand

C) pelvis

D) foot

D) foot

What is the coxal bone also known as?

A) elbow

B) hip bone

C) knuckle

D) shin

B) hip bone

Where in the human body can sesamoid bones be found?

A) heart

B) muscles

C) tendons

D) shoulder

C) tendons

How many bones are there in the human body?

A) 39

B) 94

C) 206

D) 215

C) 206

What types of bones are the pisiform and patella?

A) cortical

B) cancellous

C) spongy

D) sesamoid

D) sesamoid

A vitamin D deficiency can cause:

A) lack of sunlight

B) rickets

C) scurvy

B) rickets

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A) 2

B) 5

C) 7

D) 10

C) 7

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A) 7

B) 10

C) 12

D) 15

C) 12

How many lumbar vertebrae are there

A) 2 fused

B) 3

C) 5

D) 7

C) 5

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A) 2 fused

B) 5 unfused

C) 5 fused

D) 7 fused

C) 5 fused

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A) 2 fused

B) 4 fused

C) 7 fused

D) 2 unfused

B) 4 fused

Choose the surface feature that represents a depression in a bone

A) fossa

B) process

C) facet

D) condyle

A) fossa

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of connective tissue called the -----

A) diaphysis

B) endosteum

C) periosteum

D) epiphysis

B) endosteum

------- are the type of bone cell that tears down bone during the building and remodelling process.

A) osteocytes

B) osteoblasts

C) osteoclasts

D) bone lining cells

C) osteoclasts

Cervical vertebrae differ from lumbar vertebrae in all of these aspects except -------

A) size

B) bifid spinous process

C) presence of transverse foramina

D) presence of transverse processes

D) presence of transverse processes

What portion of the scapula articulates with clavicle?

A) acromion

B) glenoid cavity

C) spine

D) scapular notch

A) acromion

What location on the humerus is the site of frequent fractures?

A) anatomical neck

B) surgical neck

C) intertubercular groove

D) deltoid tuberosity

B) surgical neck

The ------ of the humerus receives a process by the same name that comprises the outer elbow bone

a) coronoid fossa

b) deltoid tuberosity

c) trochlea

d) olecranon fossa

d) olecranon fossa

What portion of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?

a) styloid process

b) tuberosity of radius

c) head

d) ulnar notch

c) head

Which carpal bone articulates with the first metacarpal?

a) capitate

b) hamate

c) trapezoid

d) trapezium

d) trapezium

How many phalanges are present in each hand

a) 28

b) 14

c) 15

d) 30

b) 14

At what location do the three bones of the ossa coxae ossify?

a) greater pelvis

b) acetabulum

c) pelvic brim

d) pelvic inlet

b) acetabulum

Through which point of the pelvic girdle does the sciatic nerve pass to the leg?

a) greater sciatic notch

b) anterior sacral foramen

c) obturator foramen

d) acetabular notch

a) greater sciatic notch

What is the point of attachment for the patellar ligament on the tibia?

a) intercondylar eminence

b) medial condyle

c) tibial tuberosity

d) anterior crest

c) tibial tuberosity

What process makes up the outer ankle ''bone''?

a) medial malleolus of tibia

b) lateral malleolus of fibula

c) lateral epicondyle of tibia

d) head of fibula

b) lateral malleolus of fibula

Which tarsal bone articulates with the first metatarsal bone of the foot?

a) cuboid

b) lateral cuneiform

c) medial cuneiform

d) intermediate cuneiform

c) medial cuneiform

During the healing of a bone fracture, what is the final step in the healing process?

a) hematoma

b) remodelling of the bony cells

c) phagocyte activity

d) formation of bony callus

b) remodelling of the bony cells

Bones that form in tendons in response to stress are called

a) cartilaginous bones

b) sesamoid bones

c) latent bones

d) spongy bones

b) sesamoid bones

Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton?

a) skull

b) ribs

c) os coxae

d) both b and c

c) os coxae

Which of the following is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?

a) the vertebral column

b) the patella

c) the clavicle

d) the femur

a) the vertebral column

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a) support

b) hemopoiesis

c) mineral stage

d) coordination

d) coordination

Which of the following is not protected by the skeletal system?

a) liver

b) heart

c) muscles

d) central nervous system

c) muscles

Bone is primarily composed of:

a) phosphorous

b) calcium

c) magnesium

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

In function, the skeletal system is most closely associated with the:

a) muscular system

b) mineral system

c) nervous system

d) urinary system

a) muscular system

Which of the following is not one of the categories of bone shape?

a) long bones

b) flat bones

c) thick bones

d) short bones

e) sesamoid bones

c) thick bones

A facet is described as a:

a) marked bony prominence

b) sharp, slender process

c) flattened or shallow articulating surface

d) projection adjacent to a condyle

c) flattened or shallow articulating surface

A small pit or depression on a bone is referred to as a:

a) fossa

b) fissure

c) fovea

d) meatus

c) fovea

Red bone marrow within certain long bones is in contact with the:

a) articular cartilage

b) endosteum

c) epiphyseal plate

d) periosteum

b) endosteum

Large bone cells that enzymatically break down bone tissue and that play an important role in bone growth, remodelling, and healing are known as:

a) osteogenic cells

b) osteoblasts

c) osteocytes

d) osteoclasts

e) bone-lining cells

d) osteoclasts

Osteocytes within compact bone tissue are located in minute capsules, or spaces, known as:

a) lacunae

b) osteons

c) lamellae

d) trabeculae

e) sinuses

a) lacunae

In compact bone, the matrix is laid down in concentric rings called:

a) osteons

b) lamellae

c) canaliculi

d) trabeculae

b) lamellae

-------- builds up bone, while --------- breaks down bone.

a) meatus/marrow

b) osteoblast activity/osteoclast activity

c) epiphysis/diaphysis

d) diaphysis/epiphysis

b) osteoblast activity/osteoclast activity

Calcification is the process of:

a) ossification

b) osteoporosis

c) growth

d) mitosis

a) ossification

------- is the process by which minerals are deposited in the matrix of cartilaginous bone tissue

a) ossification

b) hardening

c) calcification

d) deposition

c) calcification

Spongy bone develops at the ---------- centres.

a) bone marrow

b) histological zone

c) primary ossification

d) secondary ossification

d) secondary ossification

An --------- consists of five histological zones

a) epiphyseal plate

b) primary ossification center

c) secondary ossification center

d) cartilage ring

a) epiphyseal plate

The ------- is a region of transformation from cartilage tissue to bone tissue:

a) ossification zone

b) calcification zone

c) cartilage ring

d) none of the above

a) ossification zone

Which of the following is not one of the four curvatures of the vertebral column?

a) brachial curve

b) thoracic curve

c) cervical curve

d) lumbar curve

a) brachial curve

Processes that limit the twisting of the vertebral column are the:

a) spinous processes

b) transverse processes

c) lateral processes

d) articular processes

d) articular processes

Which of the following is not considered part of the rib cage?

a) clavicles

b) false ribs

c) sternum

d) costal cartilages

a) clavicles

The three components of the sternum, listed from superior to inferior in position, are:

a) xiphoid process, sternal angle, costal notch

b) manubrium, body, xiphoid process

c) jugular notch, clavicular notch, costal notch

d) body, manubrium, clavicular notch

b) manubrium, body, xiphoid process

Certain structures are common to all ribs; for example:

a) tubercle

b) head

c) neck

d) both b and c

d) both b and c

Osteoporosis, the disorder characterized by weakening of bones, primarily as result of calcium

loss, is most common in which groups?

a) postmenopausal women

b) elderly men

c) children

d) all adults

a) postmenopausal women

The most virulent type of bone cancer, which frequently metastasizes through the blood to the

lungs, is:

a) osteoid osteomas

b) osteoma

c) osteogenic sarcoma

d) none, bone cancer is not virulent

c) osteogenic sarcoma

A fissure is defined as:

a) a deep pit or socket

b) a rounded opening through a bone

c) a groove that accommodates a vessel, nerve, or tendon

d) a narrow, slitlike opening

d) a narrow, slitlike opening

Which of the following is found only on the femur?

a) tubercle

b) trochanter

c) tuberosity

d) head

b) trochanter

Which of the following associations is not correct?

a) endosteum/yellow bone marrow

b) medullary cavity/endosteum

c) medullary cavity/periosteum

d) red bone marrow/spongy bone

c) medullary cavity/periosteum

Which of the following secures the periosteum to the bone?

a) perforating fibers

b) epiphyseal plate

c) endosteum

d) dipole

a) perforating fibers

Trabeculae

a) are found in spongy bone

b) give spongy bone a latticework appearance

c) are found in compact bone

d) both a and b

d) both a and b

Which of the following is a primary curve of the vertebral column?

a) cervical

b) lumbar

c) thoracic

d) pelvic

e) both c and d

e) both c and d

Which is not a characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?

a) thin, long spinous processes

b) transverse foramina

c) large bodies

d) thick spinous processes

e) both a and d

e) both a and d

86.Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

a) vertebral column

b) patella

c) clavicle

d) os coxae

e) skull

a) vertebral column

e) skull

87.All of the following are functions of the skeletal system

a) support

b) blood cell production

c) calcium storage

d) excretion

e) respiration

a) support

b) blood cell production

c) calcium storage

Osteoclasts

a) deposit calcium into bone

b) destroy bone matrix

c) are a type of white blood cell

d) A and C are correct

e) A and B are correct

b) destroy bone matrix

c) are a type of white blood cell

All of the following are bones of the thorax

a) clavicle

b) sternum

c) true ribs

d) false ribs

e) sacrum

b) sternum

c) true ribs

d) false ribs

The bone of the upper limb is the

a) radius

b) ulna

c) humerus

d) femur

a) radius

b) ulna

c) humerus

The bone of the upper limb is the

a) radius

b) ulna

c) humerus

d) femur

e) lunate

a) radius

b) ulna

c) humerus

e) lunate

The ribs

a) are the bones forming the lateral thoracic wall

b) are 14 pairs

c) are several types described as typical or ''true'' ribs, ''false'' ribs, ''floating'' ribs

d) have many features in common: head, neck, tubercle, angle, body, costal groove

e) known as ''floating'' are attached to sternum

a) are the bones forming the lateral thoracic wall

c) are several types described as typical or ''true'' ribs, ''false'' ribs, ''floating'' ribs

d) have many features in common: head, neck, tubercle, angle, body, costal groove

The Ilium

a) is fan shaped bone that forms that lateral prominence of the pelvis

b) is one of the three bones that form the os coxae

c) has a body that participates in the formation of the glenoid cavity

d) has an anterior superior iliac spine at the anterior end of the iliac crest

e) has arcuate line which is inferior boundary of the iliac fossa

a) is fan shaped bone that forms that lateral prominence of the pelvis

b) is one of the three bones that form the os coxae

d) has an anterior superior iliac spine at the anterior end of the iliac crest

e) has arcuate line which is inferior boundary of the iliac fossa

The phalanges are

a) long bones

b) short bones

c) are 13

d) are 14

e) are 15

a) long bones

d) are 14

The hip bone(os coxae) consists of

a) os coccygis

b) os pubis

c) os ischii

d) os sacrum

e) os ilium

b) os pubis

c) os ischii

e) os ilium

96.The elements in the proximal end of radius are

a) processus styloideus

b) circumferential articularis

c) incisura radialis ulnae (radial notch)

d) tuberositas radii

e) fovea articularis

b) circumferential articularis

d) tuberositas radii

e) fovea articularis

97.In the adult vertebral column

a) the primary curves are in the thoracic and sacral region

b) there is more flexion and extension in the lumbar region than in the thoracic region

c) there is more rotation about a longitudinal axis in the thoracic region than in the lumbar region

d) the transverse processes are posterior to the articular processes in all the vertebrae

e) the shape of the intervertebral discs contributes to the secondary curves

a) the primary curves are in the thoracic and sacral region

b) there is more flexion and extension in the lumbar region than in the thoracic region

c) there is more rotation about a longitudinal axis in the thoracic region than in the lumbar region

e) the shape of the intervertebral discs contributes to the secondary curves

Lumbar vertebrae show the following features

a) they have flat articular processes

b) their transverse processes become progressively longer from above downwards

c) the plane of the joints between the articular processes is sagittal

c) the plane of the joints between the articular processes is sagittal

In thoracic vertebrae

a) all the spinous processes are long

b) all the transverse processes have articular facets for the ribs

c) all the bodies have two articular facets on each side for the ribs

d) the transverse processes increase in length from above downwards

e) all the superior articular processes are more or less in the coronal (frontal) plane

e) all the superior articular processes are more or less in the coronal (frontal) plane

How the parts of the body from A to E correspond to the two types of skeleton classification? ( 1. axial 2. appendicular)

a) cranium

b) spine

c) pectoral girdle

d) pelvic girdle

e) ribs

a) cranium 1

b) spine 1

c) pectoral girdle 2

d) pelvic girdle 2

e) ribs 1