NOCTI EXAM medical assisting

Which type of patient is appropriate for a wheelchair and toilet transfer

a patient who does not walk well

What may patients hold on to for support during a wheelchair to vehicle transfer

dashboard

what type of footwear must a patient wear during a transfer procedure

non-slip shoes

how many health care workers are needed for most bed and stretcher transfers

3

what should you do if a patient begins to breathe very heavily and complains of dizziness during a transfer procedure

return the patient to a sitting position and notify your supervisor

True or false: a transfer belt should be used in the two-person method of chair transfers

true

what is one purpose of the lateral position

to keep the airway open in unconscious and semi-conscious patients

when sitting in a chair, how often should patients be repositioned

every 15 minutes

why should the fowler’s position only be used for short periods of time

it increases risk of pressure ulcers

in what position is a patient when sitting at a 45 degree angle

fowler’s

what should the health care worker do if a patient shows signs of orthostatic hypotension while sitting in the dangling position

help the patient lie down

in what stage does the pressure ulcer crack, peel, or blister

Stage 2

Which of the following is NOT a method of preventing pressure ulcers:

a. observe patients’ skin carefully and thoroughly

b. helping patients perform ROM exercises twice a day

c. promote patient cleanliness

d. turning bed-ridden patients every 8 hours

d. turning bed-ridden patients every 8 hours

which of the following is true of pressure ulcers:

a. pressure ulcers are much easier to treat than prevent

b. only frail and obese patients are at risk of developing pressure ulcers

c. ulcers are likely to develop wherever skin touches other skin and at pressure points

d. ulcers only occur when patients are confined to a bed

c. ulcers are likely to develop wherever skin touches other skin and at pressure points

in the logrolling procedure, what piece of equipment is needed to turn the patient in one swift motion

draw sheet

in what stage does the pressure ulcer open into a deep crater and reveal underlying tissue

stage 3

what must a health care worker do before transferring a patient to a wheelchair

make sure both wheels are locked

where should a patient’s feet be placed while in a wheelchair

on the footrests

always bend at your…

hips and knees

why are side rails and safety straps considered restraints

they prevent a patient from moving freely

which muscles are the strongest in your body

leg muscles

where should transfer belts be positioned

around the waist, over the clothing

which one of the following would be considered an exposure incident:

a. collecting a clean-catch urine specimen from a patient

b. changing a patient’s solid linens

c. sticking your hand with a suture needle while stitching a wound

d. brushing a patient’s teeth

c. sticking your hand with a suture needle while stitching a wound

what is the purpose of a sharps injury log

to record details of all exposure incidents that involve a sharp

which health care employees are eligible for free Hep B vaccination

those at risk of exposure to blood or bodily fluid

which of the following must be included in an exposure control plan:

a. procedure to follow after an exposure incident

b. a log of tasks for each employee’s role

c. a description of the facility’s evacuation plan

d. employees who have not been vaccinated against Hep B

a. procedure to follow after an exposure incident

In what document does a facility describe the measures being taken to reduce exposure to bloodborne pathogens at the facility

exposure control plan

infectious materials include blood and bodily fluids, tissue and cell specimens, mucous membranes, and what

non-intact skin

what type of PPE should you use when helping a patient with a small cut that is not bleeding

gloves

James has just finished a procedure with a patient. What should he do with the disposable gown he is wearing

dispose of it in a biohazardous waste container

when should hands be washed when you will be wearing personal protective equipment

before donning and after removing equipment

which of the following is NOT true about cleaning:

a. read the safety data sheet on any chemicals you are using

b. wipe spills immediately, but wait several hours to disinfect the surface

c. Use a 1:10 bleach solution to disinfect contaminated surfaces

d. wear PPE when cleaning

b. wipe spills immediately, but wait several hours to disinfect the surface

what type of gloves are used for most medical assistant tasks

non-sterile

how are contaminated gloves removed

turn inside out while removing and do not touch skin with outside of glove

what should be done when a sharps container is full

get a new puncture-proof container to dispose of sharps

how should rescue breaths be given to patients during CPR

use a CPR shield

what type of PPE should you wear when helping a patient who has been shot in the thigh

gloves, mask, eyewear, and a gown

HIV and hepatitis are transmitted through what modes

blood and sexual contact

which of the following can result in a false-negative HIV test result:

a. drinking lots of water before taking a test

b. using a blood test instead of a test using oral fluids

c. taking a confidential test

d. testing before seroconversion occurs

d. testing before seroconversion occurs

what do unprotected sex, having multiple sexual partners, and intravenous drug use have in common

they are high-risk activities that put you at risk of infection

in which type of testing is a patient’s name recorded with the test result

confidential

which one of the following bloodborne pathogens is the most infectious:

a. HIV

b. Hep B

c. Hep C

d. Bloodborne pathogens are equally-infectious

b. Hep B

Which of the following is true of enemas:

a. when administering an enema, release the bottle while the bottle tip is still in the patient’s rectum

b. patients should be placed in the prone position before administering an enema

c. encourage the patient to take deep beaths through the mouth to help them relax

d. although physicians must order enemas, all assistants are permitted to administer enemas

c. encourage the patient to take deep breaths through the mouth to help them relax

What is the purpose of an ostomy

allows waste to be expelled

what must you do if the connection end of the catheter accidentally touches the bed

wipe the tube with an antiseptic wipe and then plug the tube

what type of catheter is left in the bladder, held in place by an inflated balloon

indwelling

a catheter drainage bag should be emptied at least how often

every 8 hours

what is the key to bladder and bowel training success

establish a regular schedule of toileting

for which type of training is it important for assistants to urge patients to eat foods high in fiber

bowel training

what is the term that means a person is unable to predict and control elimination

incontinent

what does it mean to force fluids

to remind the patient to drink each time you are in the room

how many milliliters are equal to 1 ounce

30 mL

which of the following is true of an Intake and Output chart

the daily intake should be almost the same as the daily output

which of the following is true of intake:

a. oral intake may need to be estimated

b. IV fluids must be estimated

c. intake is measured in milligrams or ounces

d. one glass of juice is equal to 300 cc or mL

a. oral intake may need to be estimated

why is it important to face patients while feeding them

to interact and make the patient the focus of attention

how long after a meal should a patient remain in an upright position

1 hour

which of the following is NOT true:

a. an enteral feeding should be given straight from the refrigerator to ensure it is fresh

b. aspiration is a serious risk with enteral feedings

c. NG tubes and nasointestinal tubes are used for short-term enteral feedings

d. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and hyperalimentation have the same meaning

a. an enteral feeding should be given straight from the refrigerator to ensure it is fresh

which of the following is NOT true:

a. cheese and butter are good food choices for a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet

b. a pureed diet may be used for patients who have difficulty swallowing

c. snacks are served between meals for patients on a high-calorie diet

d. the sizes of food portions should be controlled on a calorie-restricted diet

a. cheese and butter are good food choices for a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet

which of the following is true:

a. a less-effective gag reflex in older persons increases their risk for choking

b. liquids or foods ordered by a physician to improve a patient’s nutrition are called nourishments

c. pain and nausea often lead patients to eat more in response

d. while they may prepare the food differently, all cultures use beef as their main source of protein

a. a less-effective gag reflex in older persons increases their risk for choking

At the end of breakfast, you notice that Rhonda did not drink any of her milk. She says she does not like milk because it upsets her stomach. What should you do?

ask Rhonda if she would like a different beverage, and then check with the dietary department

Ms. Glenn says she is not in pain. What clues might support or refute that Ms. Glenn is not in pain

the patient’s body language and behavior

Which approach is best when helping patients with PM care

calm and soothing

what should be used to clean a patient’s glasses

soft cleaning tissues

which of the following is the proper way to care for a hearing aid:

a. bathe a patient with a hearing aid in place

b. use hair spray when a patient is wearing a hearing aid

c. turn the hearing aid off when it is not being used

d. encourage a patient to wear the hearing aid 24 hours a day

c. turn the hearing aid off when it is not being used

if a patient shows signs of weakness during a tub or whirlpool bath, what should the assistant do

drain the water and allow the patient to rest in the tub

Which of the following is the WRONG WAY to wash a patient's body

a. Top to bottom

b. Clean area to dirty area

c. Dirty area to clean area

d. Front to back

e. All of the above

c. dirty area to clean area

at what temperature should bath water be

105 degrees Fahrenheit

what is the most important way to provide patients with privacy while bathing

cover the patient as much as possible

Which of the following is true about dressing a patient?

a. Help patients look their best by selecting their clothing for them.

b. When dressing a patient, put clothing on the patient's strong side first.

c. Help all patients with shoes, socks, and stockings.

d. Patients are generally not worried about modesty when staff is helping them dress.

c. help all patients with shoes, socks, and stockings

Mrs. Sanchez had a stroke, which caused her to lose muscle control in her left arm. You are helping Mrs. Sanchez pull on her cardigan sweater. Which arm should be pulled through the sweater first?

Left

Which of the following is true of providing special oral care to unconscious and completely dependent patients?

a. Never give water or mouthwash to these patients.

b. These patients need oral care once per day.

c. Use toothpaste on an oral swab to clean the patient's teeth.

d. Patients need only their teeth and gums cleaned.

a. never give water or mouthwash to these patients

a patient’s gums appear swollen and there is a small amount of bleeding. what should you do

report your observations to the nurse

Which of the following may indicate scalp disease:

a. oily, limp hair

b. dry, frizzy hair

c. red, scaly, or irritated skin on the scalp

d. knotted, tangled hair

c. red, scaly, or irritated skin on the scalp

how should safety razors be thrown away

dropped into a sharps container

which of the following is true of foot care:

a. perform foot care while having the patient stand next to the bed

b. cut toenails short and blunt

c. observe the feet for abnormalities, such as corns or calluses

d. apply lotion over all surfaces of the patient’s foot and in-between toes

c. observe the feet for abnormalities, such as corns or calluses

what is the risk in trimming the nails, especially the toenails, of diabetic patients

poor circulation in the extremities makes the patients prone to infection

which of the following describes proper technique for female perineal care:

a. wipe from the perineum to the clitoris, repeating the motion several times

b. use on hand to separate the vulva and labia, and the other hand to wipe

c. start with the inner labia and then move to the outer labia

d. hold the patient’s leg to the side and wipe the outer labia only

b. use one hand to separate the vulva and labia, and the other hand to wipe

which of the following describes correct technique for male perineal care:

a. begin at the tip of the penis, and wipe in circular and downward motions

b. if a patient is uncircumcised, wash only the foreskin

c. use upward wipes toward the tip of the penis

d. lift the scrotum and wash the perineum, followed by the penis

a. begin at the tip of the penis, and wipe in circular and downward motions

which of the following is done to prepare an open bed:

a. fanfold the top linen to the foot of the bed

b. tuck the spread under the mattress and make a mitered corner at the head of the bed

c. raise the head of the bed to a sitting position

d. place the overbed table over the foot of the bed on the same side of the bed as the chair

a. fanfold the top linen to the foot of the bed

a draw sheet should span what area of the bed

above a patient’s shoulders to below the hips

which of the following is the correct technique for making an occupied bed:

a. strip the entire bed only when heavily soiled. otherwise remove only the first layer

b. strip the entire bed and then make the bed one layer at-a-time

c. strip each side of the bed, and then make each side of the bed

d. strip one side of the bed only and immediately make that side of the bed

d. strip one side of the bed only and immediately make that side of the bed

which of the following is the correct technique for handling soiled linens:

a. pull on sheets to release corners that are tucked in

b. wrap the soiled linens in a clean sheet to carry to the

c. roll soiled linens into themselves, with soiled areas on the inside

d. drop soiled linens in a pile on the floor until you put them into a laundry hamper

c. roll soiled linens into themselves, with soiled areas on the inside

Which of the following is NOT a common location of pressure ulcers?

a. Back of the shoulders

b. Forearms

c. Heels and toes

d. elbows

b. forearms

which of the following is true of pressure ulcers:

a. ulcers only occur when patients are confined to a bed

b. ulcers are likely to develop wherever skin touches other skin and at pressure points

c. only frail and obese patients are at risk of developing pressure ulcers

d. pressure ulcers are much easier to treat than to prevent

b. ulcers are likely to develop wherever skin touches other skin and at pressure points

which test is used to evaluate a pregnant woman’s cardiac health

ECG

what might the presence of protein in a pregnant patient’s urine indicate

preeclampsia

which of the following is NOT standard part of an initial prenatal exam:

a. screening for cervical cancer and STDS

b. complete physical exam and medical history

c. patient education regarding pregnancy health and nutrition

d. ultrasound and assessment for fetal heart beat

d. ultrasound and assessment for fetal heart beat

which test would detect if a pregnant patient is anemic

CBC, HCT, and Hemoglobin

Which of the following is true about documenting a prenatal exam:

a. only the mother’s data should be recorded in the patient’s chart

b. only the baby’s data should be recorded in the patient’s chart

c. both the mother’s and baby’s data should be recorded in the patient’s chart

c. both the mother’s and baby’s data should be recorded in the patient’s chart

Typically, how often do prenatal exams occur before the 30th week of gestations

once every 4 weeks

at what point during gestation can the baby’s heartbeat first be heard

around the 10th week of gestation

what is the normal range for fetal heart rate

120 to 160 BPM

which of the following is true about the vital signs that are taken at a routine prenatal exam:

a. they should be recorded only in the case of abnormalities

b. they should not be recorded

c. they should replaced the baseline vital signs

d. they should be compared to the baseline vital signs

d. they should be compared to the baseline vital signs

which of the following elements are most commonly included in a GYN exam:

a. breast exam and abdominal exam

b. rectal exam and blood test

c. breast exam, pelvic exam, and cervical cancer screening

d. cervical cancer screening and immunization shots

c. breast exam, pelvic exam, and cervical cancer screening

what is used in ultrasonography to create an image of the baby in the mother’s uterus

sound waves

during a complete physical exam, in what position is the patient typically placed during the examination of the breast, abdomen, and extremities

supine position

what is the general role of the medical assistant during a complete physical exam

to assist the physician in any way that is needed

which of the following is NOT true about a complete physical exam:

a. CPEs must be performed in a specific order

b. CPEs may help a physician make a diagnosis or treatment plan

c. CPEs provide a physician with a picture of a patient’s health

d. CPEs may included blood tests, x-rays, or ECGs

a. CPEs must be performed in a specific order

which of the following is true about pediatric vaccinations:

a. parents have the right to refuse vaccinations for their children

b. physicians are required by law to enforce the vaccination schedule

c. vaccinations are required by law for all children

d. children may choose for themselves if they want vaccinations

a. parents have the right to refuse vaccinations for their children

under what circumstances is it appropriate for a medical assistant to remain in the room with a patient when the patient is disrobing and putting on a gown

when the patient specifically requests help with disrobing