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Flashcards cover essential grading rules, leadership metrics, failure procedures, aircraft limitations, system operations, and simulator policies outlined in the CRJ Checkrides manual revision 28 (23 JAN 23).
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Where can the AQP Electronic Grader Operations Manual (SP 2520) be found?
On SkyWest Online → Info Center → Manuals → Flight Standards → Manuals.
What are the three training codes used in the AQP grader and what do they indicate?
P – Proficient; T – Training required/progressing; D – Deficient (no progress or regression).
After a training module is finished, which grades must every task show to allow progression?
Only “T” or “P”; no task may be left as a “D.”
What two conditions must exist before an instructor may recommend a student after the final session?
All tasks must be marked “P,” and all required syllabus items must be trained.
What immediate action is required if an AQP grader error is discovered?
Notify the Manager AQP.
Which four behavioural areas are evaluated under Leadership, Command & Professionalism?
Situational Leadership, PIC Mentoring Actions, Captain Command Ability, Professional Expectations (plus TEAM usage).
Describe a ‘Grade 4’ on the four-point validation scale.
Standard + : Pilot meets & exceeds standard with no errors or deviations; safety never compromised.
What happens to an event set if any task inside it receives a grade 1?
The entire event set is graded as 1 (Unsat/Repeat).
When must a simulator session be submitted as ‘Incomplete’?
When it cannot be finished for reasons other than Unsat (e.g., maintenance, sickness).
Who must be contacted first if a full-flight simulator’s motion system fails?
The respective Manager Fleet Training for guidance before continuing training/checking.
During a lavatory smoke indication on approach, what cabin report acronym should the FA use?
C-O-L-D: Color, Odor, Location, Density.
Define ‘minimum fuel’ for ATC communication purposes.
The point at which upon reaching destination the aircraft can accept little/no delay; indicates priority but not an emergency.
What is the maximum altitude for single-pack operation in the CRJ 700?
31,000 ft.
List two conditions that require wing anti-ice ON for taxi in the CRJ 200.
OAT ≤ 5 °C with visible moisture, or contamination (e.g., snow, slush, ice) on taxi surfaces.
Which hydraulic system powers the inboard brakes and nose-wheel steering in the CRJ?
Hydraulic System 3.
What does the caution message ‘AUTO XFER’ indicate?
An AC bus auto transfer has failed due to a generator or bus fault.
How is 10th-stage bleed air primarily used in the CRJ 200?
For engine starts, air-conditioning/pressurization, and anti-ice pack operation.
What are the starter duty-cycle limits for a CF34 engine (1st & 2nd attempts)?
1st & 2nd : 90 s ON, 10 s OFF (ground); 120 s ON, 10 s OFF (flight).
During a TCAS RA, whose commands override ATC instructions?
TCAS RA commands always have priority over ATC.
At what RVR may a reduced-visibility take-off be conducted from a runway without centerline lights?
Not below 1,600 RVR (because centerline lights are required for 1,200 RVR operations).
State the clean-wing concept.
Aircraft must not take off with any frozen contaminants adhering to critical surfaces.
When does holdover time (HOT) begin?
At the start of the final anti-ice fluid application.
Define a ‘time-threat’ in the TEAM model.
An anticipated or unanticipated threat where sufficient time exists to assess and mitigate before impact on safety.
What is the first crew response to a wind-shear warning during take-off or landing?
MAX thrust, pitch 15° or as commanded, follow flight-director escape guidance.
Which document shows the current simulator missing/malfunction/inoperative (MMI) items?
The paper list in the FFS logbook and the restriction placard below the IOS screen.
Before resetting any circuit breaker in flight, which manual must be consulted?
The Flight Operations Manual (FOM) reset guidance.
During an emergency evacuation, what equipment does the FO remove from the flight deck?
Flashlight and, time permitting, the crash axe.
What are the five steps of the upset-recovery mnemonic ‘P‐R‐T‐S‐T’?
Push, Roll, Thrust, Stabilize, Talk (communicate).
Which auto-pilot mode is the default lateral mode after engagement?
ROL (Roll) mode.
When must the autopilot be disengaged on a precision approach?
No later than 80 ft AGL (CRJ 700/900) or 80 ft AGL (CRJ 200) during CAT I; earlier for CAT II per AFM.
Where is LAHSO information found for a given runway?
In the TLR remarks and the Jeppesen airport briefing page.
What is the max runway crosswind component for take-off in the CRJ 200?
27 kts (dry runway, non-FFOD).
How is an ATIS change communicated to the flight crew during LOE scenarios?
ATC transmits, e.g., “Information G is now current,” requiring crew acknowledgement.
What actions are required if a student is marked ‘In Training’ after a SPOT session?
Submit a Training Irregularity Form indicating session time lost, items needing completion, and comments.
Which malfunction requires the 14-stage isolation valve to be opened following an engine failure in icing?
Loss of wing anti-ice (ICE caution) because one bleed source is lost.
What is the SIM policy if any event set repeat is graded unsatisfactory?
The entire LOE is unsatisfactory; remedial training and a complete new LOE are required.
In a bounced-landing recovery, what pitch attitude is initially commanded?
Maintain or establish go-around pitch (approximately 10°) while adding thrust and stabilizing.
How long may ground operations on DC power only continue?
10 minutes (to prevent battery depletion/overheating).
When does the AC utility bus shed on the CRJ 200 during single-generator ground operation?
If a single-engine generator is powering the system and either flaps >0 ° or main cabin door is open.
What does the SMOKE TOILET (or AFT LAV) caution require?
Don masks, establish crew comms, accomplish SMOKE checklist, coordinate with FA; if extinguishes and source confirmed benign, continue per QRH.