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97 Terms

1
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Q: In the decision-making process of implementing the decision, what plan must be defined to explain to people how they will move from the old way of doing things to the new way?

A: transition

2
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Q: Which of the following helps ensure that employees abide by the law, follow necessary regulations, and behave in an ethical manner?

A: code of ethics

3
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Q: During which step of the decision-making process should one be extremely careful not to make assumptions about the situation?

A: develop problem statement

4
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Q: Which of the following activities describes when an organization reviews how well it is meeting its ethical and social responsibility goals, and communicates its new goals for the upcoming year?

A: social audit

5
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Q: A statement that highlights an organization’s key ethical issues and identifies the overarching values and principles that are important to its decision making is known as which of the following?

A: code of ethics

6
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Q: A rapid increase in the appointment of corporate ethics officers typically follows:

A: the revelation of a major business scandal

7
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Q: Someone who stands to gain or lose, depending on how a situation is resolved is known as which of the following?

A: stakeholder

8
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Q: Based on a 2013 National Business Ethics Survey, the percentage of employees who reported misconduct in the workplace when they saw it is characterized by which of the following statements?

A: increased from 2011 to 2013

9
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Q: In the case of United States v. New York Central & Hudson River Railroad Co., the U.S. Supreme Court established that:

A: an employer can be held responsible for the acts of its employees even if they act contrary to the employer’s directions

10
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Q: In an environment where employees are encouraged to do “whatever it takes” to get the job done, employees may feel pressure to act in which of the following ways?

A: unethically

11
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Q: A set of beliefs about right and wrong behavior within a society is known as which of the following?

A: moral code

12
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Q: One’s personal beliefs about right and wrong are known as which of the following?

A: morals

13
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Q: Which of the following identifies the concept that an organization should act ethically by taking accountability for the impact of its actions on the environment, the community, and the welfare of its employees?

A: Corporate social responsibility

14
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15
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Q: In the context of the Fourth Amendment, the courts have ruled that:

A: without a reasonable expectation of privacy, there is no privacy right

16
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Q: Which act protects citizens from unreasonable government searches and is often invoked to protect the privacy of government employees?

A: Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act

17
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Q: Which rule requires each financial institution to document a data security plan describing the company’s preparation and plans for protecting clients’ personal data?

A: Safeguards Rule

18
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Q: Title I of which act extends the protections offered under the Wiretap Act to electronic communications such as faxes and Internet messages?

A: Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act

19
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Q: In 2008, which act granted expanded authority to collect, without court-approved warrants, international communications as they flow through U.S. telecom network equipment?

A: USA PATRIOT Act

20
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Q: Which act gave sweeping new powers both to domestic law enforcement and international intelligence agencies to search various records?

A: USA PATRIOT Act

21
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Q: Although the Constitution does not contain the word “privacy,” the U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that the concept of privacy is protected by which of the following?

A: Bill of Rights

22
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Q: In the context of the European Union Data Protection Directive, which term refers to an individual’s right to challenge the accuracy of the data and provide the corrected data?

A: correction

23
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Q: In the context of the European Union Data Protection Directive, which term refers to an individual’s right to seek legal relief to protect privacy rights?

A: enforcement

24
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Q: Which act included strong privacy provisions for electronic health records and bans the sale of health information while promoting audit trails and encryption?

A: Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act

25
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Q: Under which act did the FCC require providers of Internet phone services and broadband services to ensure that their equipment accommodated law enforcement wiretaps?

A: Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act

26
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Q: Which act outlines who may access a user’s credit information, how users can find out what is in their file, how to dispute inaccurate data, and how long data is retained?

A: Fair Credit Reporting Act

27
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28
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Q: Violation of which act can cause a school or public library to lose funding for its Internet connections?

A: Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA)

29
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Q: Software that can be installed with a web browser to block access to certain websites containing inappropriate material is known as:

A: Internet filter

30
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Q: The Supreme Court has held that obscene speech and which of the following are not protected by the First Amendment?

A: defamation

31
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Q: If an employee sees a coworker viewing porn on a workplace computer, that employee may be able to claim that the company has created:

A: a hostile work environment

32
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Q: Although an entity may implement a speech code, which of the following entities, as legal agents of the government, must still follow the First Amendment’s content and viewpoint neutrality?

A: public schools and universities

33
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Q: A defining moment in the history of freedom of the press in the United States came in 1735 when jurors refused to convict which man for seditious libel?

A: John Zenger

34
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Q: A Nielsen survey found that what percentage of the workforce accessed pornography from their work computer?

A: less than 15 percent

35
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Q: Which option allows individuals to state their opinions without revealing their identity?

A: Anonymous expression

36
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Q: Which is an absolute defense against a charge of defamation?

A: The First Amendment

37
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Q: Which statement is true of the Communications Decency Act (CDA)?

A: The problem with the CDA was its broad language and vague definition of “indecency”

38
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Q: Which of the following can provide virtually untraceable anonymity for email messages?

A: Remailers

39
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Q: The Supreme Court case that established a test to determine if material is obscene (thus not protected by the First Amendment) is:

A: Miller v. California

40
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41
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Q: Which of the following enables a DVD player or computer drive to decrypt, unscramble, and play DVDs, but not copy them?

A: Content Scramble System (CSS)

42
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Q: Under which act was the U.S. patent system changed from a “first-to-invent” to a “first-inventor-to-file” system?

A: Leahy-Smith America Invents Act

43
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Q: Copyright and patent protection was established through which of the following?

A: the U.S. Constitution

44
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Q: A patent is a grant of a property right issued by which entity?

A: USPTO

45
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Q: One of the tests that an invention must pass to be eligible for a patent is that it must not be obvious to a person having ordinary skill in the field.

A: it must not be obvious

46
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Q: The courts have ruled in favor of using reverse engineering to:

A: enable interoperability

47
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Q: Which of the following allows portions of copyrighted materials to be used without permission under certain circumstances?

A: Fair use doctrine

48
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Q: Unlike traditional copyright law, which act focuses on the distribution of tools and software that can be used for copyright infringement as well as legitimate use?

A: Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA)

49
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Q: How many classes of items did the U.S. Supreme Court rule could not be patented?

A: two

50
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Q: Which of the following requires member governments to ensure that intellectual property rights can be enforced and that penalties for infringement are tough enough to deter further violations?

A: TRIPS agreement

51
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52
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Q: In which of the following is a defendant held responsible for injuring another person regardless of negligence or intent?

A: Strict liability

53
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Q: In an attempt to limit their liability in the event of nonperformance, software suppliers frequently write which of the following?

A: warranties

54
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Q: Which of the following is a standard, proven work process that enables controlled and orderly progress in developing high-quality software?

A: software development methodology

55
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Q: A type of business system used to develop accurate forecasts of customer demand and recommend stocks is known as:

A: decision support system

56
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Q: After an organization decides to adopt which of the following must it conduct an assessment of its software development practices to determine its capability level?

A: CMMI-DEV

57
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Q: In safety-critical systems, if an undesirable event has a 10 percent probability and a potential cost of $50,000, the risk is calculated as:

A: $5,000

58
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Q: Which approach to minimizing the impact of software errors involves independently implementing the same set of user requirements multiple times?

A: N-version programming

59
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Q: In the context of the Capability Maturity Model Integration, the maturity level where processes are ad hoc and chaotic is:

A: initial

60
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Q: If a product fails to meet its written guarantee, the buyer or lessee can sue for:

A: breach of warranty

61
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Q: Products such as statements of requirements, flowcharts, and user documentation are known as:

A: deliverables

62
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Q: When sued for which of the following is a software supplier not held responsible for every product defect that causes loss?

A: strict liability

63
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64
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Q: Which aspect of artificial intelligence involves technology that allows computers to understand, analyze, manipulate, and/or generate English?

A: natural language processing

65
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Q: Which of the following systems includes the people, procedures, hardware, software, data, and knowledge needed to develop computer systems that simulate human intelligence?

A: artificial intelligence systems

66
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Q: What type of artificial intelligence involves computer programs that learn a task and improve performance with experience?

A: machine learning

67
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Q: The primary areas where IT has been applied include all of the following except:

A: medical language processing

68
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Q: A comprehensive view of a patient’s complete medical history shared with authorized providers is known as:

A: EHR

69
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Q: Which process can reduce redundant tests by ensuring providers have access to clinical information stored at another location?

A: health information exchange

70
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Q: What is the name of the project at the Georgia Institute of Technology that uses stories to teach human values to robots?

A: Quixote

71
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Q: Advances in which area are fundamentally changing the way work gets done, affecting most workers' tasks and roles?

A: artificial intelligence

72
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Q: How often does the Bureau of Labor Statistics track U.S. productivity?

A: quarterly

73
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Q: What type of system enables physicians to place orders electronically, with the order transmitted directly to the recipient?

A: computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system

74
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75
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Q: The number of Internet users worldwide is quickly approaching which of the following?

A: 4 billion

76
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Q: Global market research company J.D. Power claims that how many consumers have used a company’s social media channel for customer service?

A: two-thirds

77
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Q: A social networking platform:

A: can be used for business purposes

78
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Q: For a sex offender at Tier 2 of the Adam Walsh Act, how long must they remain registered?

A: Lifetime

79
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Q: As of March 2017, how many states had implemented the SORNA requirements of the Adam Walsh Act?

A: 16

80
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Q: Which of the following is an example of cyberharassment?

A: Someone keeps sending you instant messages after you have asked them to stop

81
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Q: The two primary objectives of social media advertisers are driving traffic to increase product sales and:

A: raise brand awareness

82
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Q: Which social network platform enables users to visually share and discover new interests by posting images or videos?

A: Pinterest

83
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Q: Which subcategory of cyberabuse consists of a long-term pattern of unwanted, persistent pursuit and intrusive behavior?

A: Cyberstalking

84
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Q: Which federal law protects children against online stalking by making it a federal crime to communicate with a minor for unlawful sexual activity?

A: 18 USC 2261A

85
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86
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Q: A situation in which two employers have actual or potential legal rights and duties with respect to the same employee is called which of the following?

A: a coemployment relationship

87
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Q: Which of the following requires manufacturers to use at least 65 percent reusable or recyclable components and reduce or eliminate toxic packaging?

A: European Union's Restriction of Hazardous Substances Directive

88
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Q: Which statement is true about the Bureau of Labor Statistics forecast for employment between 2014 and 2024?

A: 532,000 new IT-related jobs are expected to be added.

89
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Q: Violators of the False Claims Act are liable for how many times the dollar amount for which the government was defrauded?

A: two

90
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Q: A disadvantage of using contingent workers is that they:

A: may pass on information about corporate processes to subsequent employers who could be competitors.

91
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Q: An H-1B visa is a temporary visa granted for people who work in specialty occupations that require at least a four-year bachelor’s degree.

A: work in specialty occupations that require at least a four-year bachelor’s degree.

92
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Q: Which statement about contingent workers is true?

A: They have neither an explicit nor an implicit contract for continuing employment.

93
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Q: What type of visa is a temporary work visa granted by U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for people working in specialty occupations?

A: H-1B

94
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Q: The False Claims Act was enacted during which war?

A: the U.S. Civil War

95
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Q: Which term is used to describe an effort to attract public attention to a negligent, illegal, unethical, abusive, or dangerous act?

A: whistle-blowing

96
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Q: Companies applying for H-1B visas must offer a wage that is at least what percent of the average salary for the occupation?

A: 95%

97
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Q: Offshore demand is driving up salaries in India by roughly how much per year?

A: 15 percent