Anatomy & Physiology Exam 2

Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

1. A) scapula

   B) tibia
   C) sacrum
   D) coxal bones

   E) clavicles

Answer: C

The medial end of the clavicle is also known as the ________ end.

1. A) acromial

   B) sternal
   C) coracoidal

   D) manubrial

   E) scapular

Answer: B

Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum?

1. A) acromioclavicular joint

   B) sternoclavicular joint

   C) acromiosternal joint

   D) sternoacromial joint

   E) costalclavicular joint

Answer: B

Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the scapulae?

1. A) acromioclavicular joint

   B) sternoclavicular joint

   C) acromiosternal joint

   D) sternoacromial joint

   E) costalclavicular joint

Answer: A

The acromion is continuous with a prominent ridge of bone on the posterior surface of the scapula known as the

5. A) conoid tubercle.

   B) glenoid cavity.

   C) coracoid process.

   D) spine.

   E) inferior angle.

Answer: D

The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave depression is the

5. A) supraspinous fossa.

   B) infraspinous fossa.

   C) subscapular fossa.

   D) subspinous fossa.

   E) glenoid fossa.

Answer: C

5. The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders?

   A) superior, medial, and lateral borders

   B) dorsal and costal borders

   C) anterior, posterior, and superior borders

   D) scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders

   E) pectoral borders

Answer: A

5. The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the

   A) clavicle articulates with the humerus.

   B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

   C) coxal bones articulate with the femur.
   D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.

   E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.

Answer: B

9. The clavicle articulates with the
   A) coracoid process and the humerus.

   B) glenoid cavity and scapular spine.

   C) coracoid process and acromion.

   D) manubrium and xiphoid process.

   E) manubrium and acromion.

Answer: E

9. Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle?

   A) clavicles only

   B) clavicles and scapulae
   C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus
   D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna

   E) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones

Answer: B

9. Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch?

   A) medial end of scapula

   B) medial end of clavicle

   C) lateral end of scapula

   D) lateral end of clavicle

   E) xiphoid process

Answer: B

9. Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall?

   A) radius

   B) scapula

   C) clavicle

   D) sternum

   E) glenoid cavity

Answer: C

9. The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called

   A) joints.

   B) girdles.

   C) sutures.
   D) ball and socket.

   E) rotator cuffs.

Answer: B

14. Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the lateral end and the ________ tuberosity at the medial end.

    A) costal

    B) sternal

    C) acromial

    D) deltoid

    E) scapular

Answer: A

14. The scapula articulates with the humerus at the ________ joint.

    A) acromiogleno

    B) acromiohumoral

    C) glenohumoral

    D) glenoscapular

    E) humeroscapular

Answer: C

14. The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.

    A) scapulae

    B) manubria
    C) coracoid processes

    D) clavicles

    E) acromial processes

Answer: D

18. Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus?

    A) medial epicondyle

    B) lateral epicondyle

    C) greater tubercle

    D) olecranon fossa

    E) capitulum

Answer: C

23. The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the

    A) olecranon fossa.

    B) coronoid fossa.
    C) radial fossa.
    D) intertubercular groove.

    E) radial groove.

Answer: A

23. The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process?

    A) greater tubercle

    B) lesser tubercle
    C) deltoid tuberosity

    D) medial epicondyle

    E) trochlea

Answer: D

23. The deltoid muscle attaches to what process?

    A) radial groove

    B) deltoid fossa
    C) intertubercular groove

    D) deltoid tuberosity

    E) greater tubercle

Answer: D

23. The short projections at the distal ends of both the radius and ulna are the

    A) styloid processes.

    B) radial head and ulnar head.
    C) radial head and olecranon.
    D) medial and lateral epicondyles.

    E) medial and lateral malleolus.

Answer: A

23. Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?

    A) styloid process of ulna

    B) olecranon
    C) radial notch
    D) coronoid process

    E) trochlea

Answer: E

28. The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the

    A) deltoid tuberosity.

    B) greater tubercle.
    C) radial tuberosity.

    D) brachial tuberosity.

    E) styloid process of the radius.

Answer: C

28. Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones?

    A) scaphoid

    B) lunate

    C) pisiform

    D) hamate

    E) triquetrum

Answer: D

28. The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament.

    A) radioulnar

    B) interosseous

    C) antebrachial

    D) lateromedial

    E) intrabrachial

Answer: B

28. The trochlea is located on the

    A) tibia.

    B) humerus.

    C) radius.

    D) scapula.

    E) ulna.

Answer: B

28. The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna.

    A) olecranon region

    B) brachium
    C) antecubital region

    D) antebrachium

    E) cubital region

Answer: D

33. Identify the mismatched pair.

    A) lunate; comma-shaped

    B) triquetrum; boat-shaped

    C) pisiform; pea-shaped
    D) trapezoid; wedge-shaped

    E) hamate; hook-shaped

Answer: B

33. In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.

    A) distal

    B) proximal

    C) medial

    D) superior

    E) lateral

Answer: C

33. The condyle of the humerus consists of the

    A) medial and lateral epicondyles.

    B) trochlea and olecranon fossa.

    C) capitulum and trochlea.
    D) head and neck.

    E) capitulum and coronoid process.

Answer: C

33. Which of the following surface features is found on the radius?

    A) olecranon

    B) coronoid process

    C) trochlear notch

    D) radial notch

    E) ulnar notch

Answer: E

33. There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones.

    A) 2; 8

    B) 10; 3

    C) 4; 2

    D) 8; 2

    E) 6; 2

Answer: D

38. The bones that form the fingers are the

    A) carpals.

    B) tarsals.
    C) metacarpals.

    D) metatarsals.

    E) phalanges.

Answer: E

38. The rough surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the

    A) radial groove.

    B) medial epicondyle.

    C) lateral epicondyle.

    D) deltoid tuberosity.

    E) coronoid process.

Answer: D

38. The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the

    A) carpals.

    B) tarsals.
    C) metacarpals.

    D) metatarsals.

    E) phalanges.

Answer: A

38. The head of the radius articulates with the

    A) trochlea.

    B) capitulum.
    C) carpals.
    D) olecranon process.

    E) styloid process.

Answer: B

38. The hand has ________ bones in the wrist and ________ bones in the palm.

    A) 5; 5

    B) 10; 5

    C) 8; 4

    D) 8; 5

    E) 4; 5

Answer: D

43. Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?

    A) ulna

    B) radius
    C) humerus

    D) metatarsals

    E) carpals

Answer: D

43. The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.

    A) olecranon process

    B) coronoid process

    C) styloid process

    D) radial tuberosity

    E) capitulum

Answer: C

43. The bones that form the palm are the

    A) carpals.

    B) tarsals.
    C) metacarpals.

    D) metatarsals.

    E) phalanges.

Answer: C

43. Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?

    A) foot

    B) forearm

    C) wrist

    D) hand

    E) ankle

Answer: C

52. Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?

    A) sacrum

    B) coccyx
    C) coxal bone
    D) lumbar vertebrae

    E) pubic symphysis

Answer: D

52. What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?

    A) sacrum

    B) femur

    C) humerus

    D) tibia

    E) fibula

Answer: B

52. When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the

    A) ischial tuberosities.

    B) posterior inferior iliac spines.

    C) iliac crests.
    D) obturator foramina.

    E) inferior rami of the pubis.

Answer: A

52. The pubic and ischial rami encircle the

    A) pubic symphysis.

    B) lesser sciatic notch.

    C) greater sciatic notch.

    D) obturator foramen.

    E) acetabulum.

Answer: D

52. The two pubic bones join medially at the

    A) pubic tuberosity.

    B) superior ramus.

    C) inferior ramus.

    D) pubic tubercle.

    E) pubic symphysis.

Answer: E

57. The smooth articular surface of the acetabulum is called the

    A) ovale surface.

    B) obturator surface.

    C) lunate surface.
    D) sciatic surface.

    E) hamate surface.

Answer: C

57. The sacroiliac joint is stabilized by ligaments attaching to a roughened area superior to the auricular surface of the ilium called the

    A) iliac fossa.
    B) anterior superior iliac spine.

    C) greater sciatic notch.

    D) iliac tuberosity.

    E) arcuate line.

Answer: D

57. The bony edge of the true pelvis consisting of the ilium and pubis is called the

    A) pelvic spine.

    B) pelvic brim.
    C) pubic symphysis.

    D) sacral curvature.

    E) pelvic crest.

Answer: B

57. The opening surrounded by the pelvic brim is called the

    A) pelvic inlet.

    B) false pelvis.

    C) pelvic crest.

    D) pelvic outlet.

    E) lesser pelvis.

Answer: A

57. The largest component of the coxal bone is the

    A) pubis.

    B) ischium.

    C) ilium.

    D) femur.

    E) tibia.

Answer: C

62. A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman’s pelvic outlet.

    A) larger

    B) longer

    C) narrower

    D) wider

    E) deeper

Answer: C

62. The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the

    A) anterior iliac spine.

    B) acetabulum.

    C) posterior superior iliac spine.

    D) iliac crest.

    E) iliac notch.

Answer: D

62. The sacrum articulates with the

    A) ilium.

    B) ischium.
    C) pubis.
    D) ilium and ischium.

    E) ischium and pubis.

Answer: A

62. The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the

    A) patella.

    B) pelvic girdle.

    C) pectoral girdle.

    D) coccyx.

    E) coxal bone.

Answer: E

62. Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?

    A) lunate surface

    B) greater sciatic notch

    C) gluteal lines
    D) lesser sciatic notch

    E) pubic symphysis

Answer: C

67. The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the

    A) ilium.

    B) ischium.

    C) pubis.

    D) femur.

    E) patella.

Answer: A

67. The pelvic organs are mostly found within the

    A) ischial spine.

    B) iliac fossa.
    C) ischial fossa.
    D) obturator foramen.

    E) pubic symphysis.

Answer: B

67. One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the

    A) patellar surface of the femur.

    B) pubic ramus.
    C) coxal bones.
    D) distal epiphysis of the femur.

    E) neck of the femur.

Answer: E

67. The ridge of bone that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia is called the

    A) anterior margin.

    B) medial malleolus.
    C) intercondylar eminence.

    D) interosseous membrane.

    E) intertrochanteric crest.

Answer: C

67. The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap.

    A) talus

    B) cuboid

    C) patella

    D) fibula

    E) navicular

Answer: C

72. Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight?

    A) talus

    B) tibia
    C) navicular

    D) fibula

    E) calcaneus

Answer: D

72. The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the

    A) longitudinal arch.

    B) transverse arch.

    C) superior arch.

    D) posterior arch.

    E) distal arch.

Answer: A

72. The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the

    A) humerus.

    B) femur.

    C) tibia.

    D) fibula.

    E) coxal bone.

Answer: B

72. Which of the following is the heel bone?

    A) talus

    B) navicular

    C) calcaneus

    D) cuboid

    E) patella

Answer: C

72. The distal end of the tibia articulates with the

    A) talus.

    B) fibula.
    C) patella.

    D) calcaneus.

    E) navicular.

Answer: A

77. Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?

    A) medial cuneiform

    B) capitate

    C) cuboid

    D) navicular

    E) talus

Answer: B

77. The part of the tibia that is easily felt through the skin and is known as the shin is the

    A) medial malleolus.

    B) anterior crest.

    C) tibial tuberosity.

    D) linea aspera.

    E) anterior margin.

Answer: E

77. The medial malleolus is located on the

    A) fibula.

    B) femur.

    C) tibia.

    D) patella.

    E) ischium.

Answer: C

77. he ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.

    A) tibia

    B) calcaneus

    C) talus
    D) patella

    E) head of the fibula

Answer: D

77.  A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________, a small pit in the center of the femoral head.

    A) greater trochanter

    B) lesser trochanter

    C) fovea capitis
    D) gluteal tuberosity

    E) lateral lip

Answer: C

82. Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot).

    A) due to inappropriately developed arches

    B) may involve one or both feet
    C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot

    D) feet are turned laterally and everted

    E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy

Answer: D

82. The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the

    A) medial condyle.

    B) interpatellar groove.

    C) patellar surface.
    D) femoral head.

    E) patellar canal.

Answer: C

82. The linea aspera is located on the

    A) humerus.

    B) tibia.
    C) ischium.

    D) femur.

    E) fibula.

Answer: D

82. The lateral malleolus is found on the

    A) femur.

    B) tibia.

    C) fibula.

    D) patella.

    E) calcaneus.

Answer: C

82. The medial border of the fibula is bound to the lateral border of the tibia by the

    A) lateral malleolus.

    B) medial malleolus.
    C) intercondylar eminence.

    D) interosseous membrane.

    E) tibial ligament.

Answer: D

87. The tarsus contains ________ bones.

    A) 4

    B) 5

    C) 6

    D) 7

    E) 8

Answer: D

87. The weight of the body is supported by the

    A) distal metacarpals.

    B) proximal metatarsals.

    C) hallux.
    D) calcaneus.

    E) distal ends of the metatarsals and the calcaneus.

Answer: E

87. Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured?

    A) his hand

    B) his foot

    C) his ankle

    D) his knee

    E) his hip

Answer: B

87. The talus articulates with the

    A) calcaneus.

    B) navicular bone.
    C) tibia.
    D) calcaneus and navicular bones.

    E) tibia, calcaneus, and navicular bones.

Answer: E

87. Compared to the hand, the foot

    A) has more phalanges.

    B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.

    C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones.

    D) contains arches that help distribute body weight.

    E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.

Answer: D

92. When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the

    A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus.

    B) talus and proximal ends of metatarsals.

    C) calcaneus and talus.
    D) talus and cuneiforms.

    E) calcaneus and proximal ends of metatarsals.

Answer: A

92. The condition known as 􏰁flat feet􏰁 is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?

    A) a loose calcaneal tendon
    B) weak tarsometatarsal joints

    C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals

    D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia

    E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals

Answer: C

100. Compared to the male pelvis, the female pelvis

     A) is larger.

     B) is heavier.
     C) has a greater pubic angle.
     D) has a thicker ischial tuberosity.

     E) has deep acetabula.

Answer: C

105. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?

     A) heavy, rough textured bone

     B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet
     C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees

     D) relatively deep iliac fossa

     E) ilia extend far above sacrum

Answer: C

105. The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the

     A) skull.

     B) pelvis.

     C) sacrum.

     D) teeth.

     E) thoracic cage.

Answer: B

105. Which of the following describes the female pelvis?

     A) broad and smooth

     B) prominent bone markings
     C) acetabulum directed laterally

     D) bones are heavy

     E) pelvic outlet is narrow

Answer: A

105. Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information except the person’s

     A) sex.

     B) age and nutritional status.

     C) size and handedness.
     D) health.

     E) intelligence.

Answer: E

105. Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?

     A) closure of the fontanels

     B) bone remodeling
     C) reduction in mineral content
     D) appearance of major vertebral curves

     E) fusion of the coxal bones

Answer: B

On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from

A) a young male.

B) a young female.

C) an elderly male.

D) an elderly female.

E) an infant male.

Answer: A

1. Joints can be classified structurally as

   A) bony.

   B) fibrous.
   C) cartilaginous.

   D) synovial.

   E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

1. The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a

   A) suture.

   B) gomphosis.
   C) synchondrosis.

   D) synotosis.

   E) syndesmosis.

Answer: B

1. An immovable joint is a(n)

   A) synarthrosis.

   B) diarthrosis.
   C) amphiarthrosis.

   D) syndesmosis.

   E) symphysis.

Answer: A

1. A synovial joint is an example of a(n)

   A) synarthrosis.

   B) amphiarthrosis.

   C) diarthrosis.
   D) symphysis.

   E) syndesmosis.

Answer: C

5. A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a

   A) syndesmosis.

   B) symphysis.
   C) synchondrosis.

   D) synostosis.

   E) gomphosis.

Answer: A

5. A slightly movable joint is a(n)

   A) synarthrosis.

   B) diarthrosis.
   C) amphiarthrosis.

   D) gomphosis.

   E) synostosis.

Answer: C

5. A suture is an example of a(n)

   A) synarthrosis.

   B) syndesmosis.

   C) symphysis.

   D) diarthrosis.

   E) amphiarthrosis.

Answer: A

5. An epiphyseal line is an example of a

   A) gomphosis.

   B) synchondrosis.

   C) synostosis.
   D) symphysis.

   E) syndesmosis.

Answer: C

5. Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)

   A) amphiarthrosis.

   B) syndesmosis.

   C) synostosis.
   D) synchondrosis.

   E) gomphosis.

Answer: E

10. An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the

    A) ribs with the sternum.

    B) radius and the ulna.
    C) femur with the acetabulum.

    D) atlas and the axis.

    E) navicular bone with the cuniform bones.

Answer: A