Parasitology – Protozoan & Helminthology (Week 5)

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100 fill-in-the-blank flashcards covering key protozoan and helminthology concepts from Week 5 lecture notes.

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99 Terms

1
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The two main life-cycle stages of most intestinal protozoa are the trophozoite and the __.

cyst

2
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During diarrheic episodes, the diagnostic stage seen in stool is the __ form of the parasite.

trophozoite

3
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Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted primarily by ingestion of a mature __ cyst.

quadrinucleate

4
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Entamoeba histolytica is the only known __ intestinal amoeba of humans.

pathogenic

5
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Amoebic liver abscesses are an example of __ amoebiasis caused by E. histolytica.

extraintestinal

6
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Flies and __ can mechanically transmit Entamoeba histolytica cysts.

cockroaches

7
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For asymptomatic E. histolytica infection, the drug of choice is __.

Paromomycin

8
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Iodoquinol is recommended for treating the __ form of E. histolytica infection.

symptomatic

9
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Quadrinucleate cysts of E. histolytica are resistant to ordinary __ in water supplies.

chlorination

10
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The nonpathogenic species that is morphologically similar to E. histolytica is Entamoeba __.

dispar

11
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Entamoeba hartmanni trophozoites characteristically lack ingested __.

red blood cells

12
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Entamoeba __ is found worldwide in both warm and cold climates and is nonpathogenic.

coli

13
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Entamoeba polecki is primarily a parasite of pigs and __.

monkeys

14
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Treatment of human E. polecki infection often combines metronidazole with __ furoate.

diloxanide

15
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The most common mature cyst of Endolimax nana contains __ nuclei.

four

16
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Entamoeba gingivalis has __ known cyst stage.

no

17
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Transmission of E. gingivalis may occur by mouth-to-mouth contact or sharing contaminated __.

utensils

18
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Naegleria fowleri causes primary __ meningoencephalitis (PAM).

amoebic

19
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Naegleria fowleri is usually acquired by __ in warm fresh water.

swimming

20
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The recommended drug for PAM includes intravenous __ B.

Amphotericin

21
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Acanthamoeba trophozoites possess spinelike pseudopods called __.

acanthopodia

22
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Contact-lens wearers are at particular risk for Acanthamoeba __.

keratitis

23
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Calcofluor white is a useful stain for detecting Acanthamoeba __ in corneal scrapings.

cysts

24
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The most successful treatment of Acanthamoeba infections uses the drug __.

propamidine

25
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Giardia intestinalis attaches to the duodenal wall by means of a ventral __ disk.

sucking

26
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Giardia cysts are notable for their resistance to routine __ in water treatment.

chlorination

27
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Tinidazole or nitazoxanide are first-line agents for treating __.

giardiasis

28
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Double-strength saturated __ solution can render contaminated water safe from Giardia.

iodine

29
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Chilomastix mesnili infection follows ingestion of contaminated food or __.

water

30
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Dientamoeba fragilis may be transmitted inside the eggs of __ vermicularis.

Enterobius

31
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The Brownian movement of granules in D. fragilis trophozoites is called the __ phenomenon.

Hakansson

32
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Iodoquinol is the treatment of choice for symptomatic __ fragilis infection.

Dientamoeba

33
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Trichomonas hominis has __ cyst stage in its life cycle.

no

34
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Trichomonas hominis may be acquired by ingestion of infected __.

milk

35
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Trichomonas tenax inhabits the oral cavity and is spread via shared __ or droplets.

utensils

36
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Trichomonas vaginalis is most commonly transmitted through __ intercourse.

sexual

37
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In women, T. vaginalis often produces a foul-smelling, __-yellow vaginal discharge.

greenish

38
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Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the standard therapy for __ vaginalis infections.

Trichomonas

39
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The infective stage of Leishmania for humans is the __ injected by sandflies.

promastigote

40
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The diagnostic tissue stage of Leishmania observed in macrophages is the __.

amastigote

41
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Leishmania braziliensis complex causes __ leishmaniasis involving mucosal tissues.

mucocutaneous

42
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Vectors of L. braziliensis belong to the sandfly genus __.

Lutzomyia

43
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Sodium stibogluconate (Pentostam) is an antimony compound used to treat __ infection.

Leishmania

44
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Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) is caused by the __ donovani complex.

Leishmania

45
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A positive __ skin test can indicate exposure to visceral leishmaniasis.

Montenegro

46
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Amphotericin B is considered the drug of choice for severe __ leishmaniasis.

visceral

47
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Cutaneous leishmaniasis of the New World, also called chiclero ulcer, involves Leishmania __ complex.

mexicana

48
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Leishmania mexicana infections are typically treated with pentavalent __.

antimonials

49
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Old World cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by the __ fly.

Phlebotomus

50
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A Giemsa-stained aspirate of ulcer fluid is diagnostic for Leishmania __ complex infection.

tropica

51
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Trypanosoma brucei gambiense causes West African __ sickness.

sleeping

52
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The tsetse fly species __ palpalis transmits T. b. gambiense.

Glossina

53
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Postcervical lymphadenopathy in Gambian trypanosomiasis is called __ sign.

Winterbottom’s

54
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Heightened pain sensitivity known as __ sign occurs in late Gambian trypanosomiasis.

Kerandel’s

55
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Eflornithine is one medication used to treat West African __ sickness.

sleeping

56
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Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense causes the more acute __ African sleeping sickness.

East

57
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Glossina morsitans is a principal vector of T. b. __.

rhodesiense

58
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American trypanosomiasis is another name for __ disease.

Chagas

59
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The reduviid or “kissing” bug transmits Trypanosoma __.

cruzi

60
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Unilateral periorbital edema in acute Chagas disease is called __ sign.

Romaña’s

61
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The drug __ (Lampit) is commonly used to treat Chagas disease.

Nifurtimox

62
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Paroxysms in Plasmodium vivax malaria recur every __ hours.

48

63
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Plasmodium malariae produces paroxysms every __ hours (quartan pattern).

72

64
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Plasmodium malariae infections lack the stippling known as __ dots.

Schüffner’s

65
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Blackwater fever with hemoglobinuria is a severe complication of Plasmodium __ infection.

falciparum

66
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The zoonotic species Plasmodium __ is treated effectively with artemisinin.

knowlesi

67
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Optimal malaria blood films are prepared during the patient’s __ stage of fever.

paroxysmal

68
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Babesia merozoites form a characteristic __-cross pattern in red cells.

Maltese

69
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Human babesiosis is commonly transmitted by ticks of the genus __.

Ixodes

70
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Severe human babesiosis in Europe is usually caused by Babesia __.

divergens

71
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The reservoir host for Babesia microti is the __-footed mouse (Peromyscus leucopus).

white

72
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Combination therapy with clindamycin and __ is effective for babesiosis.

quinine

73
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The only ciliate known to infect humans is __ coli.

Balantidium

74
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Domestic __ serve as the main reservoir for Balantidium coli.

pigs

75
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Oxytetracycline followed by iodoquinol is recommended therapy for __.

balantidiasis

76
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Oocysts of Isospora belli are best visualized with a modified __-fast stain.

acid

77
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Humans are the only definitive host of Isospora __.

belli

78
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Severe isosporiasis responds well to therapy with __ (TMP-SMX).

SXT

79
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Oocysts of Sarcocystis hominis contain __ sporocysts, each with four sporozoites.

two

80
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Humans become definitive hosts of S. hominis by eating undercooked __ or cattle.

pig

81
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Cryptosporidium parvum oocysts lack internal __.

sporocysts

82
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Self-limiting watery diarrhea lasting about two weeks is typical of __ infection.

cryptosporidiosis

83
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Produce such as contaminated lettuce is a common vehicle for Cyclospora __.

cayetanensis

84
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Cats are the definitive host in the life cycle of __ gondii.

Toxoplasma

85
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Rapidly dividing __ cause the acute tissue damage in toxoplasmosis.

tachyzoites

86
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Trisulfapyrimidines combined with __ is classic therapy for toxoplasmosis.

pyrimethamine

87
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Blastocystis hominis most often presents as a vacuolated form that reproduces by __.

sporulation

88
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Iodoquinol or __ are drugs frequently used to treat symptomatic Blastocystis infection.

metronidazole

89
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Pneumocystis jiroveci causes atypical interstitial __ cell pneumonia.

plasma

90
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Person-to-person transmission of Pneumocystis jiroveci occurs via inhaled __ droplets.

pulmonary

91
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First-line therapy for pneumocystosis in AIDS patients is high-dose __ (TMP-SMX).

Bactrim

92
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A parasite that requires only one host to complete its life cycle is termed __.

monoxenous

93
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Parasites that cannot survive without a host are classified as __ parasites.

obligate

94
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Parasites located within the intestinal lumen are referred to as __.

enterozoic

95
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The host that harbors the adult or sexual stage of a parasite is called the __ host.

definitive

96
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Thick and thin blood films are basic laboratory methods for detecting __ parasites.

hematozoic

97
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At least __ stool specimens, collected every other day, are recommended for routine ova-and-parasite exams.

three

98
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Intestinal protozoan cysts are most likely found in __ or soft stools.

formed

99
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Liquid stool must be examined within __ minutes of passage to detect motile trophozoites.

30