Taylor final exam part 1

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104 Terms

1
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What is the normal heart rate?

60-100 beats per minute

2
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What pulse rate is considered tachycardia?

Greater than 100 beats per minute

3
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What pulse rate is considered bradycardia?

Less than 60 beats per minute

4
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What is the flow of the electrical conduction system of the heart?

SA node → intranodal tracts → Bachman's bundle → AV node → Bundle of His → right and left bundle branches → Purkinje fibers

5
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What does the P wave represent in the heart's electrical conduction?

Depolarization of the atria

6
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What does the P-R interval represent?

AV conduction time; delay for filling of the ventricle

7
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What does the QRS complex represent?

Depolarization of the ventricles and repolarization of the atria

8
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What does the T wave represent?

Repolarization of the ventricles

9
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What does the U wave represent?

Repolarization of the Purkinje fibers

10
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What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

SA node

11
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What is the pacing rate of the SA node?

60-100 beats per minute

12
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What is the secondary pacemaker of the heart?

AV node

13
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What is the pacing rate of the AV node?

40-60 beats per minute

14
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What are the causes of sinus tachycardia?

Pain, anxiety, fever, hypoxia, shock, medications, stimulants (caffeine and tobacco)

15
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What are the characteristics of a normal sinus rhythm?

Atrial and ventricular rates are the same (60-100), normal ventricular rhythm, normal P wave precedes QRS, normal P interval (0.12-0.2), normal QRS (0.06-0.12)

16
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What is the normal P-R interval?

0.12 - 0.2 seconds (3-5 small boxes)

17
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What is resting potential in cardiac cells?

No electrical activity occurring; inside has more potassium ions, outside has more sodium and calcium ions

18
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What is action potential in cardiac cells?

Depolarization leading to heart contraction; process of depolarization and repolarization

19
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What is Einthoven's Triangle?

A method for lead placement in a 12 lead ECG

20
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What do tall peaked P waves represent?

Right atrial hypertrophy

21
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What do broad, notched P waves represent?

Left atrial hypertrophy

22
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What do tall, peaked R waves represent?

Ventricular hypertrophy

23
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What do significant Q waves represent?

Infarction

24
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How does hypokalemia show on an ECG?

Inverted T wave

25
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How does hyperkalemia show on an ECG?

Spiked T wave

26
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What qualifies an ECG rhythm to be cardioverted?

SVT (Supraventricular Tachycardia)

27
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What should you do if a patient has a sinus rhythm on the ECG but no palpable pulse?

Perform high-quality CPR, administer epinephrine, and search for reversible causes

28
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What are prolonged P-R intervals indicative of?

Impulse delay or blockage through the AV node

29
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What is cardioversion?

Use of electrical energy to restore normal heart rhythm

30
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What is defibrillation?

Termination of ventricular fibrillation by delivering a direct electrical shock

31
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What is transcutaneous pacing?

Temporary, non-invasive procedure using electrical pulses to treat slow heart rhythms

32
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How is oxygen transported within the blood?

Through plasma (PaO2) and hemoglobin (HbO2)

33
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What is the equation for CaO2?

(Hb x 1.34 x SaO2) + (PaO2 x 0.003)

34
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What is the normal value for CaO2?

20%

35
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What does the P[A-a]O2 represent?

Alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference

36
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What is the normal P[A-a]O2 value?

7-15 mmHg; should not exceed 30 mmHg

37
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What is the normal PaO2/PAO2 ratio?

0.75 - 0.95

38
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What is the critical value for the PaO2/PAO2 ratio?

<0.75

39
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What is the normal PaO2/FiO2 ratio?

350 - 450

40
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What indicates ARDS in the PaO2/FiO2 ratio?

<200

41
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What indicates ALI in the PaO2/FiO2 ratio?

<300

42
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What is the normal value for DO2?

1000

43
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What is the normal value for VO2?

250

44
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What does Qs/Qt indicate?

Shunt percentage; normal is <10%

45
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What is the importance of looking at HbO2?

It illustrates the percentage of hemoglobin that is chemically connected to oxygen at a specific oxygen pressure.

46
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Why is the P/F ratio not accurate with hypercapnia due to hypoventilation?

It does not accurately reflect oxygenation status.

47
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What is lung compliance used for in ARDS?

It is used to assess lung function, typically measured as less than 200.

48
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What makes lung compliance reliable?

FiO2 is under 50%.

49
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What makes lung compliance unreliable?

High CO2 due to hypoventilation.

50
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What is Cor pulmonale?

A condition associated with pulmonary arterial hypertension and right heart failure.

51
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What are the three major causes of right heart failure?

Increased viscosity of blood, increased vascular resistance, and obliteration of the pulmonary capillary bed.

52
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What is the a/A ratio used for?

To assess the severity of intrapulmonary shunting.

53
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What is the P/F ratio used for?

To assess the severity of hypoxemic respiratory failure (ARDS).

54
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What indicates hypoventilation in the P/F ratio?

When the ratio is less than 0.55, FiO2 is greater than 0.30, and PaO2 is less than 100 mmHg.

55
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What is the significance of cyanosis?

It indicates reduced oxygenation of arterial blood and hypoxia.

56
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What does diaphoresis indicate in a patient?

Excessive sweating, common in acute respiratory distress or myocardial infarction.

57
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What does a pupillary reflex assessment indicate?

Pupils should be equal, round, and reactive to light; abnormalities may indicate neurologic damage.

58
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What does jugular venous distention indicate?

It is often a result of right-sided heart failure.

59
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What does a tracheal shift indicate?

A shift from midline may indicate atelectasis, pneumothorax, or lung tumors.

60
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What is the normal breathing rate for adults?

12-18 breaths per minute.

61
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What does abdominal paradox indicate?

Diaphragm fatigue, common in patients with COPD.

62
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What is respiratory alternans?

Alternating between belly breathing and accessory muscle use.

63
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What does central cyanosis indicate?

Inadequate oxygenation of blood or congenital heart disease.

64
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What is the significance of retractions in breathing?

They indicate increased work of breathing and respiratory distress.

65
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What is the Hoover sign?

Abnormal movement of the ribcage in COPD patients during breathing.

66
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What is the role of accessory muscles in breathing?

They assist in inhalation and exhalation when normal breathing is insufficient.

67
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What does it mean if pupils are fixed and dilated?

It may indicate brain death or severe neurologic damage.

68
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What does pinpoint pupils indicate?

It may indicate the influence of parasympathetic stimulants or opiates.

69
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What is the significance of the I:E ratio in breathing?

It helps assess the breathing pattern and effectiveness of ventilation.

70
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What is the role of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

It is responsible for inhalation.

71
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What does bulging of the chest indicate?

Severe air trapping and respiratory distress.

72
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What is the effect of hypoxic vasoconstriction?

It increases vascular resistance in the pulmonary circulation.

73
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What is the significance of Hb concentration in respiratory assessments?

It is necessary for calculating oxygen content in the blood.

74
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What does the term 'diffusion limited' refer to?

Conditions affecting the lung or capillary membrane.

75
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What does the term 'perfusion limited' refer to?

Conditions affecting the blood flow.

76
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What is the importance of calculating PAO2?

It helps assess the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.

77
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What does the term 'shunt' refer to in respiratory physiology?

A situation where blood bypasses the lungs and does not get oxygenated.

78
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What is palpation performed for?

To evaluate vocal fremitus, estimate thoracic expansion, and assess the skin and subcutaneous tissues of the chest.

79
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How do you assess vocal fremitus?

Ask the patient to repeat the words 'ninety-nine' while palpating over the chest.

80
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What does increased vocal fremitus indicate?

Pneumonia, lung tumor or mass, and atelectasis.

81
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What conditions can cause decreased vocal fremitus?

Unilateral: bronchial obstruction, pneumothorax, and pleural effusion; Diffuse: COPD with hyperinflation, muscular, or obese chest wall.

82
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What is rhonchial fremitus?

Palpable vibrations caused by thick secretions, often identified during inhalation and exhalation.

83
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What does a dull percussion note indicate?

Low pitch or fluid presence, associated with pneumonia, effusion, or atelectasis.

84
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What does hyperresonance in percussion suggest?

Increased resonance, indicating conditions like emphysema or pneumothorax.

85
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What is the purpose of auscultation?

To listen to lung and heart sounds using a stethoscope.

86
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What is hepatomegaly?

An enlarged liver, common in patients with Cor pulmonale.

87
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What is ascites?

An abnormal collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

88
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What is clubbing a sign of?

Significant manifestation of cardiopulmonary disease.

89
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What does cyanosis indicate?

A blue/gray/purplish appearance of the skin due to poor perfusion.

90
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What is pedal edema?

Swelling in the feet due to fluid retention.

91
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What is the normal capillary refill time?

2-5 seconds.

92
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What does skin turgor assess?

Dehydration by checking if the skin returns immediately after being pinched.

93
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What are tracheal breath sounds?

Loud, high-pitched sounds heard directly over the trachea with equal inspiratory and expiratory components.

94
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What are crackles?

Discontinuous sounds heard most often on inspiration.

95
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What are wheezes?

Continuous sounds heard most often on exhalation.

96
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What does tachypnea refer to?

Rapid rate of breathing.

97
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What is apnea?

No breathing.

98
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What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

Irregular breathing with periods of apnea, often due to CNS diseases or congestive heart failure.

99
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What is Kussmaul breathing?

Deep and fast breathing, often due to metabolic acidosis.

100
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What is the function of the cerebrum?

Movement, level of consciousness, ability to speak and write, emotions, and memory.