HMAP 100 Quiz 3 Study

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Last updated 11:15 AM on 4/3/26
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29 Terms

1
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Which of the following is not a formed element of blood?

  • White blood cells

  • Red blood cells

  • Platelets

  • Plasma

Plasma

2
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Which ESR value is not normal?

  • 0

  • 30

  • 1

  • 10

30

3
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What is the purpose of the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) test?

  • To diagnose inflammation

  • To diagnose anemia

  • To diagnose polycythemia

  • None of the available answers

To diagnose inflammation

4
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What is the relationship between hemoglobin and hematocrit values?

  • Hemoglobin is approximately five times the hematocrit value

  • Hemoglobin is approximately one-third of the hematocrit value

  • Hemoglobin is approximately twice the hematocrit value

  • Hemoglobin and hematocrit values are unrelated

Hemoglobin is approximately one-third of the hematocrit value

5
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What is the normal hemoglobin range for adult males?

  • 13-17 g/dL

  • 10-14 g/dL

  • 12-16 g/dL

  • 16-23 g/dL

13-17 g/dL

6
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How long does it take for normal platelet function to return after discontinuing aspirin?

  • Immediately

  • Several hours

  • Several weeks

  • Several days

Several days

7
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Which anticoagulant is the preferred choice for coagulation testing?

  • Sodium Heparin

  • Sodium Citrate

  • Sodium Fluoride

  • EDTA

Sodium Citrate

8
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What is the blood to anticoagulant ratio used in coagulation test?

  • 9:1 blood to anticoagulant

  • 5:1 blood to anticoagulant

  • 1:1 blood to anticoagulant

  • 1:9 blood to anticoagulant

9:1 blood to anticoagulant

9
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Identify the reason why a discard tube is used when collecting blood with a winged collection system.

  • To reduce patient discomfort

  • To prevent short draws caused by air space in the tubing

  • To prevent hemolysis of the sample

  • To ensure proper mixing of anticoagulant

To prevent short draws caused by air space in the tubing

10
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Explain what the process of glycogenesis involves in glucose metabolism.

  • Converting stored glycogen to glucose

  • Making glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

  • Converting excess glucose to glycogen for storage

  • Breaking down glucose for immediate energy

Converting excess glucose to glycogen for storage

11
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Describe what HbA1c represents in terms of glucose monitoring.

  • The average blood glucose levels over 2-3 months

  • The glucose level immediately after eating

  • The maximum glucose level reached in a day

  • The glucose level at a specific moment in time

The average blood glucose levels over 2-3 months

12
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Which 2-hour postprandial glucose value would be considered a criterion for diabetes diagnosis?

  • 180 mg/dL

  • 160 mg/dL

  • 140 mg/dL

  • 200 mg/dL or greater

200 mg/dL or greater

13
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Which term describes test results that are extremely high or low and require immediate action by laboratory staff?

  • Normal ranges

  • Critical values

  • Baseline measurements

  • Standard protocols

Critical values

14
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According to 2010 ADA recommendations, which fasting plasma glucose range indicates a prediabetic condition?

  • 200 mg/dL and above

  • Less than 100 mg/dL

  • 100-125 mg/dL

  • None of the answers

100-125 mg/dL

15
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Which glucose level is considered a critical values for hypoglycemia?

  • 110 mg/dL

  • 200 mg/dL

  • 80 mg/dL

  • 40 mg/dL

40 mg/dL

16
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Explain why HDL cholesterol is referred to as “good cholesterol.”

  • It transports cholesterol from tissues to the liver to be broken down

  • It prevents the formation of blood clots in arteries

  • It directly removes plaque deposits from blood vessel walls

  • It increases the production of beneficial hormones

It transports cholesterol from tissues to the liver to be broken down

17
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Which condition results from elevated blood cholesterol levels accumulating on blood vessel walls?

  • Diabetes

  • Hypertension

  • Atherosclerosis

  • Anemia

Atherosclerosis

18
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Which triglyceride reference value range is considered borderline high?

  • Less than 150 mg/dL

  • 150 to 199 mg/dL

  • 200 to 499 mg/dL

  • 500 mg/dL and above

150 to 199 mg/dL

19
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Explain what happens to bacteria that are gram positive during the gram stain procedure.

  • Crystal violet and appear blue-purple

  • They become transparent and colorless

  • They lose the crystal violet and appear pink-red

  • They turn yellowish after safranin application

Crystal violet and appear blue-purple

20
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Identify what MIC stands for in antibiotic susceptibility testing.

  • Moderate inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration

  • Multiple inhibitory concentration

  • Maximum inhibitory concentration

MInimum inhibitory concentration

21
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Identify what should be done with liquid specimens like sputum during transport.

  • Place them in a biohazard transport pocket for paperwork

  • Transport them without any special packaging

  • Freeze them before transport

  • Place them in regular plastic bags

Place them in a biohazard transport pocket for paperwork

22
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What are the three key properties of specific immunity?

  • Phagocytosis, inflammation, and antibody production

  • Antigen presentation, lymphocyte activation, and cytokine release

  • Innate resistance, humoral immunity, and cell mediated immunity

  • Recognition, specificity, and memory

Recognition, specificity, and memory

23
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What is the purpose of vaccines?

  • To provide lifelong immunity against all contagious diseases

  • To stimulate humoral immunity by exposing the body to specific antigens

  • To directly kill pathogens and prevent infection

  • To strengthen the innate immune system’s physical barriers

To stimulate humoral immunity by exposing the body to specific antigens

24
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Explain why immunity to influenza viruses is usually short-lived compared to other diseases.

  • Influenza viruses are too small to create strong immunity

  • The immune system cannot recognize influenza viruses

  • Influenza vaccines are less effective than other vaccines

  • Influenza viruses have the ability to rapidly change their viral antigens

Influenza viruses have the ability to rapidly change their viral antigens

25
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Which virus causes infectious mononucleosis?

  • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

  • Herpes simplex virus

  • Cytomegalovirus

  • Human immunodeficiency virus

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

26
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Explain why infectious mononucleosis is commonly called the “kissing disease.”

  • It primarily affects romantic couples

  • Transmission through close contact with saliva from infected individuals

  • The virus is only found in saliva during romantic encounters

  • It causes swollen lips and mouth sores

Transmission through close contact with saliva from infected individuals

27
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Explain what lymphocytosis means in the context of infectious mononucleosis diagnosis.

  • A decrease in white blood cell count

  • An increase in lymphocytes with 10% to more than 20% being atypical

  • The complete absence of lymphocytes

  • Normal lymphocyte levels with no morphological changes

An increase in lymphocytes with 10% to more than 20% being atypical

28
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Is the blood good for blood bank testing if it was collected on Monday and tested on Thursday?

  • Yes

  • No

Yes

29
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Explain what is a blood bank band.

  • A heavy metal laboratory rock band

  • A valid patient identification

  • A band used for blood transfusion

  • None of the available answers

A band used for blood tranfusion

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