Neurological imaging and diagnostic testing

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77 Terms

1
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Focal sensory examination evaluates 3 things

light touch, 2 point discrimination, sharp/dull

2
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The more distal, the more _____ sensory capabilities you have

focal

3
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what does AVPU stand for

Alert, Voice (responds to), Pain (responds to), Unresponsive

4
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What is the best score for GCS

15

5
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What is the GCS of a totally unresponsive person

3

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EVMS

Eye, Verbal, Motor, Score

7
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"Dry" CT

CT w/o IV contrast

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CT w/o contrast can help identify

intracranial bleeding, stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic), brain/spine tumors, fractures, spinal stenosis

<p>intracranial bleeding, stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic), brain/spine tumors, fractures, spinal stenosis </p>
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epidural hematoma

lemon shaped

normal mental status to completely unconscious

<p>lemon shaped</p><p>normal mental status to completely unconscious</p>
10
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subdural hematoma

Crescent-shaped intracranial bleeding after head injury in the elderly; can be acute on chronic

<p>Crescent-shaped intracranial bleeding after head injury in the elderly; can be acute on chronic</p>
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subarachnoid hemorrhage

more diffuse presentation

<p>more diffuse presentation</p>
12
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intracerebral hemorrhage

typically not trauma related; can often come from a ruptured AVM from uncontrolled HTN

<p>typically not trauma related; can often come from a ruptured AVM from uncontrolled HTN</p>
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ischemic brain injury

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14
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are epidural or subdural hematomas more common?

subdural

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Dark (on CT) means

old blood

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White means

new blood or CSF

17
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Can you have a subdural hematoma that is acute on chronic?

yes

18
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CT w/ IV contrast head can help identify

stroke (ischemic), brain/spine tumors & vascularity, AVM, fractures/spinal stenosis

<p>stroke (ischemic), brain/spine tumors &amp; vascularity, AVM, fractures/spinal stenosis</p>
19
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if you wanted both a CT w/ and w/o contrast, which would you do first?

Without contrast ("dry")

20
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MRI head is most helpful in evaluating __________

soft tissue disturbances (tumors, brain infections, dementia, inflammation)

<p>soft tissue disturbances (tumors, brain infections, dementia, inflammation)</p>
21
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Before having an MRI, you must make sure the patient doesn't have

metal in the body

22
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head MRA evaluates

magnetic resonance angiography

23
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head PET Scans use ____ bound to glucose to show where the brain is _____

radioactive substance bound to glucose to see where the brain is working

24
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PET Scans are used to identify brain

function

25
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PET Scans are useful in evaluation of

alzheimer's disease, epilepsy, parkinson's disease, mets

<p>alzheimer's disease, epilepsy, parkinson's disease, mets</p>
26
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EEG measures the pattern of

electrical activity in the brain

<p>electrical activity in the brain</p>
27
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EEG can find brain wave patterns a/w

epilepsy, seizure, tumors, alzheimer disease, psychoses, sleep disorders, brain injury/death

28
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brain death on EEG

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29
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normal EEG

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30
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in CSF analysis what do tubes 1,2,3,4 represent

1: CBC w/ dif

2: gram stain

3: C&S

4: Cell count

31
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Positive cell count on LP could indicate

traumatic tap or intracranial hemorrhage

32
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do you have to draw tubes 1,2,3,4 in consecutive order?

YES

33
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what is a major contraindication for performing an LP

space occupying lesion in the brain (this could cause the brain to herniate because you are quickly decreasing the intracranial pressure)

34
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what are some signs and symptoms that would make you concerned about a space occupying lesion

progressively worsening HA, ne HA w/ focal neuro symptoms, unexplained HA in pt with cancer or HIV, new onset seizure

35
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doppler US of the head can help identify

blood clots, arterial stenosis, vascular vasospasm

36
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EMG can be used to evaluate _____ nerves

peripheral

37
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EMG evaluates the ___ and ____ of electrical nerve impulses

speed and strength

38
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what are some conditions that EMG is used for

peripheral nerve compression syndromes, peripheral neuropathy, diabetic neuropathy, carpal tunnel syndrome

39
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what is some lab testing that you can order to evaluate peripheral nerve testing

vit deficiencies (vit b12, e, b6) , diabetes (glucose and HgbA1c) , immune function abnormalities, chronic renal failure (uremia), exposure to heavy metals (lead)

40
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CT myelography can be used to evaluate the ____ and _____

spinal cord and canal

41
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CT myelography is a good alternative to MRI to identify

spinal stenosis, disc herniation, spondylosis, arthritis

<p>spinal stenosis, disc herniation, spondylosis, arthritis</p>
42
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plain radiography of the head/neck is good to determine

flexion and extension of the spine (evals stability)

43
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herniated disc disease

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44
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pain related to a herniated disc will most oftentimes occur ____ to the injury

distal

45
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spinal compression fracture

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46
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cervical burst fracture

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47
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clay shoveler's fracture

Fracture of C6 or C7 spinous process, relatively innocuous.

<p>Fracture of C6 or C7 spinous process, relatively innocuous.</p>
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spondylosis

arthritic degeneration of the spine

49
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spondylosis is generally accompanied by ____ formation and disc ______

osteophyte formation and disc thinning/collapse

<p>osteophyte formation and disc thinning/collapse</p>
50
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_____ is a common cause of low back pain but can occur anywhere

spondylosis

51
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spondylolisthesis

forward slipping of one vertebra over another (caused by vertebral fracture at the pars interarticularis)

<p>forward slipping of one vertebra over another (caused by vertebral fracture at the pars interarticularis)</p>
52
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spondylolithesis can be caused by ____ or ______

degenerative or traumatic etiology

<p>degenerative or traumatic etiology</p>
53
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spondylolisthesis s/s can range from none to _______

severe low back pain with radiculopathy

<p>severe low back pain with radiculopathy</p>
54
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spinal stenosis

Narrowing of the spinal canal that causes pressure on the spinal cord (nerves)

<p>Narrowing of the spinal canal that causes pressure on the spinal cord (nerves)</p>
55
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spinal stenosis etiology

osteophytes, disc herniation, tumors, trauma

<p>osteophytes, disc herniation, tumors, trauma</p>
56
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what are the s/s of spinal stenosis

mild-severe pain, paresthesia, and muscle weakness

<p>mild-severe pain, paresthesia, and muscle weakness</p>
57
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cauda equina syndrome is a form of _____ where all nerves in the lower spine are compressed

spinal stenosis

<p>spinal stenosis</p>
58
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s/s of cauda equina syndrome

low back pain, radiculopathy, lower extremity weakness, reduced, incontinence of bowel/bladder

<p>low back pain, radiculopathy, lower extremity weakness, reduced, incontinence of bowel/bladder</p>
59
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rank arthritis, cauda equina, spondylolithesis, and spinal stenosis from best to worst

Normal

arthritis/spondylosis

spondylolithesis

spinal stenosis

cauda equina syndrome

60
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hangman's fracture is a fracture of the

bilateral pars interarticularis of C2

<p>bilateral pars interarticularis of C2</p>
61
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hangman's fracture is traumatic _____ of the atlas/axis

spondylolisthesis of the axis (C2)

62
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what are the most common causes of a hangman's fracture

MVA, diving injuries, sports injuries, face first fall from standing position

63
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Jefferson's fracture is a ___ fracture of the atlas/axis caused by axial loading of the cervical spine

burst fracture of the atlas (C1)

64
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are jefferson's fractures usually accompanied by c-spine injuries?

yes, 1/3 have c2 fracture

65
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Jefferson's fracture also usually causes a blunt ____ injury

cerebrovascular (ICA, CCA, vertebra artery)

66
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chance "seatbelt" fracture

An unstable traumatic flexion-distraction fracture in the area of the thoracolumbar junction

<p>An unstable traumatic flexion-distraction fracture in the area of the thoracolumbar junction</p>
67
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there is a high chance of severe ____ injury with chance fractures

abdominal

68
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odontoid fracture is a common fracture of the ____ dens caused by low-energy falls in geriatric patients and high energy trauma in younger patients

C2 dens

<p>C2 dens</p>
69
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odontoid fractures are typically related to

hyperextension or hyperflexion

70
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what are the 2 m/c primary spinal tumors

multiple myeloma and osteosarcoma

71
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what are the m/c secondary spinal tumors

breast, lungs, prostate

72
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multiple myeloma

Most common form of plasma cell cancer that develops in the bone and metastasizes throughout the body

<p>Most common form of plasma cell cancer that develops in the bone and metastasizes throughout the body</p>
73
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"moth eaten appearance" of bones indicates

multiple myeloma

<p>multiple myeloma</p>
74
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what are the s/s of multiple myeloma

bone pain, weakness, weight loss

<p>bone pain, weakness, weight loss</p>
75
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what is the m/c form of bone cancer that begins in the bone

osteosarcoma

76
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what is the gold standard imaging for osteosarcoma

MRI (must confirm w/ bx)

77
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secondary spinal tumors often present with nighttime _____ that wakes the patient up from sleep

neck or back pain

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