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preanesthetic medications and induction agents
preanesthetic medications and induction agents
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46 Terms
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1
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what are the purposes of medications and induction agents?
calm or sedate
minimize adverse effects
reduce required dose of concurrently administered agents
produce smoother inductions and recoveries
decrease pain
muscle relaxation
2
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how are medications typically administered?
IV IM or SQ
3
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what is the onset and duration of SQ administration?
slowest onset and longest duration
4
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what is the onset and duration of IM administration?
somewhat faster onset and shorter duration that SQ
5
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what is the onset and duration of IV administration?
rapid onset and shorter duration than IM or SQ
6
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what do anticholinergics do?
decrease salivary secretions
treat/prevent bradycardia
7
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are anticholinergics controlled or uncontrolled?
uncontrolled
8
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atropine is an example of an _____
anticholinergic
9
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what is the onset, peak, and duration of atropine after IM injection?
onset: 5min
peak: 10-20min
duration: 60-90min
10
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what is the onset, peak, and duration of glycopyrrolate after IM injection?
onset: 5min
peak: 30-45min
duration: 2-3hours
11
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Which anticholinergic is less likely to cause CNS effects because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier?
glycopyrrolate
12
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Anticholinergics are not sedatives and have ______ CNS effects
limited
13
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how does anticholinergics effect the cardiovascular system
they prevent bradycardia
they cause the heart rate to increase
14
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how do anticholinergics effect the respiratory system?
they reduce secretions and produce thick mucous in the airways
15
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what are the adverse effects of anticholinergics?
mydriasis
reduces GI motility
reduces lacrimal secretions
16
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which anticholinergic is less likely to induce cardiac arrhythmias?
glycopyrrolate
17
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what are the two types of anticholinergics?
atropine and glycopyrrolate
18
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which anticholinergic is the better choice for emergency treatment for bradycardia because of its faster onset of action?
atropine
19
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(tranquilizer/sedative) which reduces anxiety but does not decrease awareness and wakefulness
tranquilizer
20
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(tranquilizer/sedative) which reduces mental activity and sleepiness?
sedatives
21
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what are the 3 classes of tranquilizers or sedatives commonly used in vet med?
phenothiazines
benzodiazepines
alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
22
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which class of tranquilizers or sedatives protect against cardiac arrhythmias or function as antiemetics?
phenothiazines
23
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which class(es) of tranquilizers or sedatives can produce vomiting or function as a good muscle relaxant?
benzodiazepines
alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
24
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sedatives relax tissues where?
in the pharynx
25
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when using sedatives, which breeds should you use caution with?
brachycephalic breeds
26
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acepromazine is a type of ____
phenothiazine
27
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what is also referred to as the “major tranquilizer”
acepromazine
28
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is acepromazine controlled or uncontrolled?
uncontrolled
29
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what does water soluble mean?
it is not painful upon injection
30
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what is acepromazine’s function?
can decrease the dose of general anesthetic required
can ease induction and recovery
31
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True/False: phenothiazines are ideal for C-sections
False
32
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what is the onset, peak, and duration of phenothiazines after IM injection in canine or IV injection in equine?
onset: 15min
peak: 30-60min
duration: 4-8hours in small animal + 1-3hours in equine
33
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what is a major effect of phenothiazines?
depression
34
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how do phenothiazines effect the CNS?
calming, sedation, reluctance to move, decreased interest in surroundings
35
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how do phenothiazines GENERALLY effect the cardiovascular system?
can cause dose dependent tachycardia in response to hypotension
directly decreases cardiac output
36
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what kind of antiarrhythmic effects do phenothiazines have on the cardiovascular system?
protects against ventricular arrhythmias when using other agents known to produce them
37
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how do phenothiazines affect the respiratory system?
it doesnt
38
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_____ can cause penile prolapse in equine
phenothiazines
39
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phenothiazines prevent the release of _____, so you should not use them in patients undergoing allergy testing
histamines
40
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True/False: Patients should be free of stimulation between administration and peak effect when using acepromazine
true
41
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This drug is commonly referred to as “minor tranquilizers”
benzodiazepines
42
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Benzodiazepines are most often used _______ for their muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant properties
in combinations with other agents
43
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benzodiazepines may cause _____
dysphoria
44
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what are the 3 commonly used benzodiazepines?
diazepam, zolazepam, and midazolam
45
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True/False: Benzodiazepines should not be mixed with water soluble drugs or in a syringe with other drugs.
True
46
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