preanesthetic medications and induction agents

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what are the purposes of medications and induction agents?

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46 Terms

1

what are the purposes of medications and induction agents?

calm or sedate

minimize adverse effects

reduce required dose of concurrently administered agents

produce smoother inductions and recoveries

decrease pain

muscle relaxation

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2

how are medications typically administered?

IV IM or SQ

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3

what is the onset and duration of SQ administration?

slowest onset and longest duration

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4

what is the onset and duration of IM administration?

somewhat faster onset and shorter duration that SQ

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5

what is the onset and duration of IV administration?

rapid onset and shorter duration than IM or SQ

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6

what do anticholinergics do?

decrease salivary secretions

treat/prevent bradycardia

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7

are anticholinergics controlled or uncontrolled?

uncontrolled

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8

atropine is an example of an _____

anticholinergic

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9

what is the onset, peak, and duration of atropine after IM injection?

onset: 5min

peak: 10-20min

duration: 60-90min

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10

what is the onset, peak, and duration of glycopyrrolate after IM injection?

onset: 5min

peak: 30-45min

duration: 2-3hours

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11

Which anticholinergic is less likely to cause CNS effects because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier?

glycopyrrolate

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12

Anticholinergics are not sedatives and have ______ CNS effects

limited

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13

how does anticholinergics effect the cardiovascular system

they prevent bradycardia

they cause the heart rate to increase

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14

how do anticholinergics effect the respiratory system?

they reduce secretions and produce thick mucous in the airways

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15

what are the adverse effects of anticholinergics?

mydriasis

reduces GI motility

reduces lacrimal secretions

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16

which anticholinergic is less likely to induce cardiac arrhythmias?

glycopyrrolate

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17

what are the two types of anticholinergics?

atropine and glycopyrrolate

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18

which anticholinergic is the better choice for emergency treatment for bradycardia because of its faster onset of action?

atropine

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19

(tranquilizer/sedative) which reduces anxiety but does not decrease awareness and wakefulness

tranquilizer

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20

(tranquilizer/sedative) which reduces mental activity and sleepiness?

sedatives

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21

what are the 3 classes of tranquilizers or sedatives commonly used in vet med?

phenothiazines

benzodiazepines

alpha 2 adrenergic agonists

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22

which class of tranquilizers or sedatives protect against cardiac arrhythmias or function as antiemetics?

phenothiazines

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23

which class(es) of tranquilizers or sedatives can produce vomiting or function as a good muscle relaxant?

benzodiazepines

alpha 2 adrenergic agonists

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24

sedatives relax tissues where?

in the pharynx

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25

when using sedatives, which breeds should you use caution with?

brachycephalic breeds

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26

acepromazine is a type of ____

phenothiazine

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27

what is also referred to as the “major tranquilizer”

acepromazine

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28

is acepromazine controlled or uncontrolled?

uncontrolled

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29

what does water soluble mean?

it is not painful upon injection

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30

what is acepromazine’s function?

can decrease the dose of general anesthetic required

can ease induction and recovery

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31

True/False: phenothiazines are ideal for C-sections

False

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32

what is the onset, peak, and duration of phenothiazines after IM injection in canine or IV injection in equine?

onset: 15min

peak: 30-60min

duration: 4-8hours in small animal + 1-3hours in equine

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33

what is a major effect of phenothiazines?

depression

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34

how do phenothiazines effect the CNS?

calming, sedation, reluctance to move, decreased interest in surroundings

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35

how do phenothiazines GENERALLY effect the cardiovascular system?

can cause dose dependent tachycardia in response to hypotension

directly decreases cardiac output

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36

what kind of antiarrhythmic effects do phenothiazines have on the cardiovascular system?

protects against ventricular arrhythmias when using other agents known to produce them

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37

how do phenothiazines affect the respiratory system?

it doesnt

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38

_____ can cause penile prolapse in equine

phenothiazines

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39

phenothiazines prevent the release of _____, so you should not use them in patients undergoing allergy testing

histamines

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40

True/False: Patients should be free of stimulation between administration and peak effect when using acepromazine

true

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41

This drug is commonly referred to as “minor tranquilizers”

benzodiazepines

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42

Benzodiazepines are most often used _______ for their muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant properties

in combinations with other agents

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43

benzodiazepines may cause _____

dysphoria

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44

what are the 3 commonly used benzodiazepines?

diazepam, zolazepam, and midazolam

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45

True/False: Benzodiazepines should not be mixed with water soluble drugs or in a syringe with other drugs.

True

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46
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