Results for "osteoclasts"

Primary adrenal insufficiency = problem at level of adrenal glands Causes? Addison’s disease Pathophys? Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands Associated with hyperpigmentation POMC is precursor to both ACTH and MSH PAI → lack of negative feedback → high ACTH Lab findings? ACTH high Aldosterone low Destruction of zona glomerulosa Renin high Hypotension → RAAS activation Electrolytes Na+ low, K+ high CBC Eosinophils high Pathophys? Glucocorticoids → eosinophil apoptosis. Lack of glucocorticoids cause eosinophilia. Dx? Cosyntropin testing → no rise in cortisol Adrenal glands aren’t working, so no response to ACTH. Tx? prednisone/hydrocortisone/dexamethasone + fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) Stress-dose steroids for surgery, serious illness, etc. Secondary adrenal insufficiency = problem at level of pituitary, reduced ACTH release Causes? MC is prolonged steroid use → ACTH suppression Sheehan’s syndrome (infarction of pituitary) pregnancy Pituitary tumors (ACTH-producing tumor) Lab findings? ACTH low Anterior pituitary is being inhibited Aldosterone normal Zona glomerulosa under control of RAAS system Renin normal Electrolytes Na+ & K+ unaffected (Aldosterone levels are normal) CBC Neutrophilia due to demargination (if pt was recently taking steroids) Dx? Cosyntropin testing → rise in cortisol Adrenal gland is functional Tx? Glucocorticoids Do not need to replace mineralocorticoids since adrenals are functional and aldosterone is under RAAS control Stress-dose steroids for surgery, serious illness, etc. AI with a history of nuchal rigidity and purpuric skin lesions → Waterhouse-Friedrichson syndrome Pathophys? AI 2/2 hemorrhagic infarction of the adrenal glands in the context of Neisseria meningitidis infection Adrenal synthesis enzymes If the enzyme starts with 1 → HTN (high mineralocorticoids) and hypokalemia If the second # is 1 → virilization (high androgens) E.g. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency → HTN & virilization E.g. 21 hydroxylase deficiency → virilization only E.g. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency → HTN only B12 deficiency Where does B12 come from? Animal products VS folic from plants Physiology R factor in saliva binds to B12 and protects it from acidity in the stomach. R factor protector -B12 travels to the duodenum. Parietal cells produce intrinsic factor, which travels to the duodenum. Pancreatic enzymes cleave B12 from R factor and B12 then binds IF. B12-IF complex is reabsorbed in the terminal ileum Reabsorption where? Terminal ileum Causes of B12 deficiency Extreme vegan Pernicious anemia Pancreatic enzyme deficiency Cystic Fibrosis Can’t cleave B12 from R factor Crohn’s Affects terminal ileum Lab markers Homocysteine HIGH MethlyManoicAcid HIGH Presentation? Megaloblastic anemia Subacute combined degeneration (of dorsal columns + lateral corticospinal tract) Peripheral neuropathy Dx of pernicious anemia? anti-IF Ab Folate deficiency Where does folate come from? Leafy things Causes of folate deficiency Poor diet (e.g. alcoholics, elderly) Phenytoin Lab markers Homocysteine HIGH MMA normal Presentation? Megaloblastic anemia Prophylaxis in HIV+ patients CD4 < 200 → PCP TMP-SMX, inhaled pentamidine, dapsone, atovaquone CD4 < 100 → Toxoplasm Treat: TMP-SMX CD4 < 50 → MAC Treat: Azithromycin If live in endemic area, CD4 < 250 → Coccidioides Immitis E.g. Arizona, Nevada, Texas, California Treat: Itraconazole If live in endemic area, CD4 < 150 → Histoplasma Capsulatum E.g. Kentucky, Ohio, Missouri Treat: Itraconazole Diabetes insipidus Dx? Water deprivation test Measure serum osmolality & urine osmolality Deprive pt of water Remeasure serum osmolality & urine osmolality If urine osmolality doesn’t go up → suspect DI Central DI → deficiency of ADH Pathophys? Supraoptic nucleus not making enough ADH Dx? Give desmopressin → urine osmolality increases significantly Nephrogenic DI → kidneys are not responding to ADH Dx? Give desmopressin → urine osmolality doesn’t change much Tx? Hydrochlorothiazide Unless 2/2 lithium, use amiloride or triametere Causes? Lithium SSRIs Carbamazepine Demeclocycline Tx of normovolemic hypernatremia? D5W to correct free water deficit Divine says NS, but most other resources I found said correct free water deficit Tx of hypovolemic hypernatremia? Give NS first until normal volume, then give D5W Consequence of correcting hypernatremia too rapidly? Cerebral edema Osteoarthritis Presentation? Old person with joint pain that gets worse throughout the day Risk Factr? Obesity vs decreases osteoporosis Imaging findings? Joint space narrowing Subchondral sclerosis Subchondral cysts Osteophytes Arthrocentesis findings? <2000 cells Tx? 1st line acetaminophen 2nd line NSAID (e.g. naproxen) 3rd line joint replacement surgery Returned from a business conference 1 week ago + Fever + Nonproductive cough + Abdominal pain + Hyponatremia → Legionella Dx? Urine antigen Tx? FQ or macrolide MaCroLide mnemonic = Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella What are the common causes of atypical PNA? Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia MC cause? Mycoplasma CXR findings? Interstitial infiltrates HY associations C. Psittaci → birds C. Burnetii → cows, goats, sheet Mycoplasma → college student w/ walking pneumonia Midsystolic click heard best at the apex. → mitral valve prolapse “Stenosnap & Proclick” Risk Factor? Connective tissue disease Marfarn Ehlers-Danlos ADPKD bilateral renal masses Classic demographic? Young woman psychiatric Pathophys? Myxomatous degeneration MVP vs aortic dissection: cystic medial necrosis Exam maneuvers Anything that increase amount of blood in LV → murmur softer Increase preload Increase afterload Anything that decreases amount of blood in LV → murmur louder Dx? Echo Scaly, itchy skin with yellowish crusting in the winter. → seborrheic dermatitis Tx? Topical antifungals e.g. ketoconazole or selenium sulfide shampoo Classic disease distribution? Hair → e.g. cradle cap Eyebrows Episodic/intermittent HTN + HA → pheochromocytoma Genetic disease associations MEN2A MEN2B VHL in brain (hemangioma) NF-1 growth in skin Pathophys? Catecholamine-secreting tumor Location? Adrenal medulla Posterior mediastinum Organ of Zuckerkandl (chromaffin cells along the aorta) Dx? 1st step: urine metanephrines If elevated → CT abdomen If nothing found on CT → MIBG scan Tx? Alpha blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine, phenotaline) THEN beta blocker Most common cause of a Lower GI Bleed in the elderly → diverticulosis Dx? Colonoscopy or barium enema Recall that you acutely do a CT scan for diverticulitis, then 6 weeks later colonoscopy to r/o cancer Ppx? Eat fiber Megaloblastic anemias Blood smear findings? Hypersegmented neutrophils MCV > 100 Classic patient demographic with folate deficiency? Alcoholics Elderly person with poor nutrition Folate synthesis inhibitors Pt with molar pregnancy → methotrexate Pulmonary issue? Pulmonary fibrosis HIV+ pt with ring-enhancing lesions → pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine Pyrimethamine inhibits DHFR AIDS pt on ppx for toxo → TMP-SMX TMP inhibits DHFR Use of leucovorin? Rescue bone marrow in setting of methotrexate toxicity Mechanism? Folinic acid analog CMV presentations Esophagitis → linear ulcers Colitis → post-transplant pt Retinitis → HIV pt with CD4 < 50 Congenital CMV → periventricular calcifications + hearing loss calcifications elsewhere → toxo Histology? Owl’s eye intranuclear inclusions Tx? Gancicyclovir Resistance? UL97 kinase mutation Tx for resistance? foscarnet CD4 < 200 + severe peripheral edema + frothy urine. → FSGS in HIV pt Variant classic in HIV+ pts? Collapsing variant Tx? Steroids + cyclophosphamide + ACE-I Indinavir AE? Kidney stones triad of fever, rash, and eosinophiluria → acute interstitial nephritis Drugs cause? Penicillins Tx? Stop the drug! Can add steroids if severe Vitamin D metabolism Liver converts Vit D to calcidiol (25OH-Vit D). Calcidiol goes to kidney. Alpha-1 hydroxylase converts calcidiol to calcitriol (1,25-OH Vit D). Common causes of Vitamin D deficiency CKD → 1-alpha hydroxyalse deficiency Liver disease → can’t make calcidiol CF → malabsorption Crohn’s → malabsorption Osteomalacia vs Rickets Osteomalacia in adults Rickets in kids Tx? Calcium + vit D Lab findings? Ca++ low Phos low Low in liver disease High in kidney disease (kidneys can’t get rid of phos) PTH high (2ary hyperpara) vs liver dx PTH low Alk phos Aspiration pneumonia Risk Factor? Alcoholism Dementia Neuromuscular problems (e.g. MG, ALS) Bugs? Anaerobes foul smelling Bacteroides FUsobacterium Peptostreptococcus Klebsiella → currant jelly sputum alcoholic Tx? Clindamycin CURB-65 criteria Purpose? Who to admit Cutoff? 2+ → hospitalize C = confusion U = uremia (BUN > 20) R = RR > 30 B = BP < 90/60 Age > 65 Drugs commonly used in PNA treatment Ceftriaxone Levofloxacin fluoroquinolone Macrolides - great for atypical PNA Pharmacological management of pulmonary arterial HTN Endothelin antagonists Bosentan ambrisentan PDE-5 inhibitors Sildenafil Tadalafil Prostacyclin analogs Iloprost Epoprostenol Treprostinil Causes? Young female → idiopathic PAH Mutation? BMPR2 55 yo F presents with a 5 week history of a rash on her forehead. PE reveals scaly macules with a sandpaper texture. → actinic keratosis Risk Factor? Sun exposure Tx? Topical 5-FU Possible dangerous sequelae? Squamous cell carcinoma Most likely disease sequelae? Resolution 1ary hyperparathyroidism 2ary hyperparathyroidism 3ary hyperparathyroidism Autonomous PTH production Causes? Adenoma Parathyroid hyperplasia PTH high Ca++ high Phos low Low Ca++ → PTH production Causes? CKD PTH high Ca++ low Phos high PTH production despite normalized of Ca++ levels Causes? CKD s/p transplant PTH high Ca++ high Phos low Tx? Parathyroidectomy (remove 3.5 glands) Cinacalcet (CSR modulator) Hypercalcemia Presentation? bones, stones, groans, psychic overtones Tx? 1st step: Normal Saline Hypercalcemia of malignancy → bisphosphonates EKG finding? Shortened QT Periumbilical pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant. → appendicitis PE findings? McBurney’s point tenderness Psoas sign (flex hip pain) Obturator sign (pain with internal rotation of hip) Rovsing’s sign (palpation of LLQ → pain in RLQ) Dx? CT scan Pregnant → US Kid → US Tx? Surgery Classic drug and viral causes of aplastic anemia. Drugs? Carbamazepine Chloramphenicol Viral? Parvovirus B19 (single stranded DNA virus) Fanconi anemia Pathophys? Problems with DNA repair Fanconi anemia vs Fanconi syndrome Fanconi anemia → cytopenias + thumb anomalies + short stature + cafe-au-lait spots Fanconi syndrome → type 2 RTA (proximal) CD4 count of 94 + MRI revealing ring enhancing lesions in the cortex → toxoplasmosis Tx? Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine Rescue agent for pt who becomes leukopenic with treatment? leucovorin Who should get steroids? Increased ICP For PCP pneumonia: O2 sat < 92 PaO2 < 70 A-a gradient > 35 Ppx? TMP-SMX for CD4 < 100 Congenital toxo Hydrocephalus Chorioretinitis Intracranial calcifications Classic methods of transmission? handling cat litter Lupus nephritis Associated autoantibody? anti-dsDNA Classic “immunologic” description? “Full house” pattern Tx? Steroids + cyclophosphamide Osteoporosis Screening population? women > 65 Screening modality? DEXA scan Dx? T-score < -2.5 Risk Factor? Postmenopauseal Low BMI Smoking Alcohol Preventive strategies? Weight bearing exercise Smoking cessation Reduce alcohol consumption Tx? 1st line: bisphosphonates + Ca/Vit D supplementation Raloxifene (SERM) Agonist in bone Blocker Antagonist in breast Classic locations of osteoporotic fractures Vertebral compression fracture Hip fracture Name the PNA Red currant jelly sputum. → Klebsiella Rust colored sputum. → Strep pneumo PNA in an alcoholic. → Klebsiella Post viral PNA with a cavitary CXR lesion. → Staph aureus PNA in a patient that has chronically been on a ventilator. → Pseudomonas MC cause of Community Acquired Pneumonia. → Strep pneumo Pharmacological management of MRSA. Vancomycin Clindamycin Linezolid Ceftaroline (5th gen cephalosporin) Tigecycline, tertracycline Pharmacological management of Pseudomonas. Ceftazidime (only 3rd gen cephalosporin) Cefepime (4th gen cephalosporin) Pip-tazo Fluoroquinolones Carbapenems Aztreonam Aminoglycosides JVD and exercise intolerance in a patient with a recent history of an URI. → dilated cardiomyopathy 2/2 viral myocarditis MC cause? Coxsackie B VS Coxsackie A: Hand foot mouth dx Drug causes myocarditis Clozapine Anthracyclines Prevention? Dexrazoxane (iron chelator) Trastuzumab reversible tx for breast cancer Classic cause in a patient with recent history of travel to S. America? Chagas T. Cruzi Potential sequelae? Achalasia Dilated cardiomyopathy Megacolon (2/2 degeneration of myenteric plexus) Massive skin sloughing (45% BSA) in a patient that was recently started on a gout medication? TEN Dx? <10% BSA → SJS >30% BSA → TEN Tx? STOP the drug IVF Topical abx to prevention infection Tetany and a prolonged QT interval in a patient with recent surgical treatment of follicular thyroid carcinoma. → hypocalcemia due to removal of parathyroids Recurrent viral infections + QT prolongation + tetany → DiGeorge syndrome Pathophys? Failure of development of 3rd/4th pharyngeal pouches Trousseau and Chvostek signs. Trousseau → inflation of BP cuff causes carpopedal spasm Chvostek → taping on cheek causes facial muscle spasm Hypocalcemia that is refractory to repletion → consider hypomagnesemia Electrolyte/drug causes of prolonged QT intervals Electrolytes? Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Hypokalemia Drugs? Macrolides FloroQunlones Haloperidol Ondensatron Methadone Hypoalbuminemia and Ca balance Hypoalbumenia → decrease in total body Ca++, no change in ionized Ca++ Drop of 1 in albumin → add 0.8 to Ca++ Abdominal pain radiating to the back → acute pancreatitis Causes? #1 = Gallstones #2 = Alcohol Hypertriglyceridemia Hypercalcemia Scorpion sting Handlebar injuries Lab markers? Lipase - most sensitive Amylase Physical exam signs in pancreatitis. Cullen’s sign = periumbilical ecchymosis Grey Turner sign = flank ecchymosis Tx? NPO + IVF + pain control Meperidine is a good agent because it doesn’t cause sphincter of Oddi spasms Management of gallstone pancreatitis Dx? US then ERCP Tx? DELAYED cholecystectomy What if the patient becomes severely hypoxic with a CXR revealing a “white out” lung? ARDS noncardiogenic pulm edema PCWP? <18 mmHg NORMAL 20 yo M with red urine in the morning + hepatic vein thrombosis + CBC findings of hemolytic anemia. → paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Pathophys? Defect in GPI anchors, which attach CD55 and CD59 to cell (they prevent complement from destroying RBC) Sleep → hypoventilation → mild respiratory acidosis → activation of complement cascade Gene mutation? PIGA Dx? Flow cytometry Tx? Eculizumab (terminal complement inhibitor) Vaccine required? pnemococal Neisseria meningitidis Chronic diarrhea and malabsorption in a HIV+ patient + detection of acid fast oocysts in stool. → cryptosporidium parvum Acid-fast organisms Cryptosporidium TB MAC Nocardia Dx? Stool O&P Tx? Nitazoxanide Route of transmission? Contaminated water Muddy brown casts on urinalysis in a patient with recent CT contrast administration (or Gentamicin administration for a life threatening gram -ve infection) → Acute Tubular Necrosis Woman with morning joint stiffness > 1 hr → Rhematoid Arthritis. Antibodies? Rheum Factor (IgM against IgG) anti-CCP - more specific HLA? DR4 Pathophys? IgM constant region activates complement → inflammation → formation of pannus (hypertrophied synovium) → damage to cartilage and bone Caplan syndrome = RA + pneumoconiosis Felty syndrome = RA + neutropenia + splenomegaly (“RANS”) Classic hand/finger findings/distribution? MCP & PIP joints of hands (DIP joints spared) Imaging findings? Symmetric joint space narrowing Tx? Methotrexate (DMARDs) If no response → TNF alpha inhibitor (e.g. infliximab) Required testing prior to starting methotrexate? PFTs Required testing prior to starting infliximab? TB Hep B/Hep C Differentiating Strep pharyngitis from Infectious Mononucleosis LND distribution Anterior cervical → Strep Posterior cervical → Mono Disease onset Acute → Strep Over weeks → Mono Organ involvement Splenomegaly → Mono Pt with sore throat takes amoxicillin and gets rash → mono NOT allergic rxn! CENTOR criteria C = absence of Cough E = tonsillar Exudates N = nodes/anterior cervical lymphadenopathy T = temp (fever) OR <15 → +1 >=45 → -1 Using CENTOR score 0/1 → don’t test, don’t treat 2/3 → rapid antigen test Positive → treat Negative → throat culture 4/5 → treat empirically Tx of Strep pharyngitis? Amoxillcin If PCN allergic → azithromycin Potential sequelae of Strep pharyngitis RF - preventable with abx PSGN Endocarditis MC cause of endocarditis? IVDU Bug? Staph aureus Valve? tricuspid Prosthetic valve endocarditis Bug? Staph epidermidis Endocarditis after dental procedure? Viridans group streptococci Strep viridans, Strep mitis, Strep mutans, Strep sanguineous Patient with malar rash and echo showing vegetations on both sides of the mitral valve → Libman-Sacks endocarditis Presentation? Fever + night sweats + new murmur Splinter hemorrhages Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages) Painless Janeway lesions + painful Osler nodes (immune phenomenon) Dx? 1st step: blood cultures TEE Tx? Abx that include Staph aureus coverage (e.g. vancomycin) for WEEKS Bugs implicated in culture negative endocarditis HACEK H = haemophilus A = actinobacillus C = cardiobacterium E = eikenella K = kingella Coxiella burnetii Blood cultures in a patient with endocarditis reveal S. Bovis (or S. Gallolyticus bacteremia). NBS? Colonoscopy Who needs antibiotic prophylaxis? Hx endocarditis Prosthetic valve Unrepaired cyanotic congenital dz Heart transplant with valve dysfunction Erythematous salmon colored patch with silvery scale on the elbows and knees. → psoriasis Tx? Topical steroids If this patient presents with joint pain (especially in the fingers)? Psoriatic arthritis Imaging? Pencil-and-cup deformity Tx? NSAIDs T of 104 + tachycardia + new onset Afib in a patient with a history of Graves disease. → thyroid storm Lab findings? TSH low T3/T4 high Tx? 1st step: propranolol 2nd step: PTU Then: Prednisone Potassium iodide (Lugul’s solution) Wolff-Chaikoff effect → large amounts of iodine inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis Biopsy revealing tennis racket shaped structures in cells of immune origin. → Langerhans cell histiocytosis Electron microscopy? Birbeck granules (tennis rackets) Marker? S100 Small bowel obstruction in a HIV patient with purple macules on the face, arms, and lower extremities. → Kaposi’s sarcoma Bug? HHV8 Tx? HAART Pathophys of vascular lesions? Overexpression of VEGF Fever + rash + eosinophiluria 10 days after a patient started an antistaphylococcal penicillin. → acute interstitial nephritis Tx? STOP drug + steroids SLE SOAP BRAIN MD S = serositis O = oral ulcers A = arthritis P = photosensitivity B = blood disorders (cytopenias) R = renal A = ANA/anti-dsDNA I = immunologic N = neurologic findings M = malar rash D = discoid rash Type 2 vs 3 HSRs in lupus Type 2 → cytopenias Type 3 → all other manifestations Lupus Ab? ANA anti-dsDNA anti-Smith Lupus nephritis → full house pattern on IF Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome → recurrent pregnancy losses Pathophys? Thrombosis of the uteroplacental arteries. MC cause of death in lupus patients? What I’ve read recently: CV disease Per Divine: Treated → infection Untreated → renal dz Also 40x risk MI Endocarditis in lupus pt? Libman-Sacks endocarditis Neonatal 3rd degree heart block → neonatal lupus Maternal autoimmune dz? Sjogren’s SLE Ab? anti-SSA/anti-Ro anti-SSB/anti-La Tx? Steroids Cyclophosphamide Hydroxychloroquine → good for skin lesions Pulmonary abscesses Bugs? Staph Anaerobes Klebsiella RF? Alcoholism Elderly Post-viral pneumonia MC location of aspiration pneumonia? Superior segment of RLL Chest pain worsened by deep inspiration and relieved by sitting up in a patient with a recent MI or elevated creatinine or URI or RA/SLE. → pericarditis EKG findings? Diffuse ST elevations + PR depression PE finding? Friction rub (“scratchy sound on auscultation”) A few days after MI → fibrinous pericarditis Weeks after MI → Dressler’s Tx? NSAIDS Consider adding on colchicine Cardiac tamponade Beck’s triad = hypotension + JVD + muffled heart sounds EKG findings? Electrical alternans Type of shock? Obstructive cardiogenic (Amboss) CO low SVR high PCWP high Tx? Pericardiocentesis or pericardial Pearly lesion with telangiectasias on the ear in a farmer. → Basal Cell Carcinoma MC type skin cancer Location? Upper lip Dx? Biopsy Tx? Mohs surgery Cold intolerance in a 35 yo white F → hypothyroidism MC cause? Hashimoto’s Histology? lymphoid follicles w/ active germinal centers Lab findings? TSH high T3/T4 low Ab? anti-TPO Anti-thyroglobulin HLA? DR3/DR5 Tx? Levothyroxine Future complication? thyroid lymphoma Massive hematemesis in a patient with a history of chronic liver disease. → ruptured varices Pathophys? L gastric vein has anastomosis with azygos veins. Increased portal pressure → backward flow from L gastric veins to azygous vein (which empties into SVC). Acute tx? IVF + octreotide + ceftriaxone/cipro + EGD w/ ligation/banding Do NOT give a beta blocker for acute tx Prophalaxsis? Beta blocker + spironolactone Other manifestations of elevated portal pressures Caput medusa Internal hemorrhoids Tx for cirrhotic coagulopathies? FFP If uremia → give desmopressin Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH Hemophilia A Pathophys? deficiency of factor 8 Inheritance? XLR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH b/c clotting problem PT normal Hemophilia B Pathophys? deficiency of factor 9 Inheritance? XLR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH PT normal Hemophilia C Pathophys? deficiency of factor 11 Inheritance? AR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH PT normal Bernard Soulier Syndrome Pathophys? Deficiency of GpIb Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT normal PT normal Glanzmann Thrombasthenia Pathophys? Deficiency of GpIIbIIIa Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT normal PT normal Von Willebrand’s disease Pathophys? Deficiency of vWF Inheritance? AD Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT HIGH vWF is a protecting group for factor 8 PT normal ITP Pathophys? Ab against GpIIbIIIa Classic pt? Pt with SLE Tx? Observation Steroids IVIG Splenectomy TTP Pathophys? Deficiency in ADAMTS13 enzyme → cannot cleave vWF multimers → activation of platelets → thrombosis → thrombocytopenia Presentation? microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + renal failure + fever + neurologic problems Tx? Plasma exchange transfusion****** HUS Bugs? Shigella or E. coli O157:H7 Presentation? Fever+ microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + renal failure + neurologic Platelet deficiency vs coagulation factor bleeds Platelet deficiency → mucosal bleeds, petechiae, heavy menses Coag factor deficiency bleeds → hemarthrosis Why do patients with CKD develop coagulopathy? Uremia → platelet dysfunction Tx? Desmopressin Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH Exercising caution with transfusion in patients with Bernard Soulier syndrome Do NOT give transfusion that includes platelets They can have an anaphylactic rxn to GpIb (since they don’t have GpIb) Oropharyngeal candidiasis. RF? HIV Chronic ICS use TNF inhibitor Micro finding? Germ tubes at 37 C Tx oral candidiasis? Nystatin swish-and-swallow Tx invasive candidiasis? Amphotericin B Prevention of Amphotericin B toxicity? Liposomal formulation Pleural effusions Light’s criteria (must meet all 3 to be considered transudative!) LDH < 2/3 ULN LOW Pleural LDH/serum LDH < 0.6 LOW Pleural protein/serum protein < 0.5 LOW Causes of transudative effusion CHF Cirrhosis Nephrotic syndrome Note: Per UW 2021: Mechanism of transudate effusion? Decreased pulmonary artery oncotic pressure, e.g. hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome Increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure, e.g. volume overload in heart failure Causes of exudative effusion Malignancy Cancer Parapneumonic effusion Tb Note: Per UW 2021: Mechanism of exudate effusion? Inflammatory increased in vascular permeability of membrane (increased flow of interstitial edema into pleural space) Unique cause of both transudative & exudative effusions? PE Classic Pleural Effusion findings? Decreased breath sounds Dullness to percussion Decreased tactile fremitus Tx? Chest tube Chylothorax = lymph in the pleural space Pathophys? Obstruction of thoracic duct or injury to the thoracic duct Pleural fluid findings? High Triglycerides Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex with radiation to the axilla in a patient with a recent MI. → mitral regurg 2/2 papillary muscle rupture Dx? Echo Why widely split S2? Aortic valve is closing earlier (LV is emptying into both aorta & LA) Maneuvers that increase intensity Increase preload (putting more blood in that can be regurgitated) Increase afterload Decubitus ulcers RF? Elderly Paraplegic Fecal/urinary incontinence Poor nutrition Staging Stage 1 = non-blanchable erythema Tx? Repositioning q2hrs Stage 2 = loss of epidermis + partial loss of dermis Tx? Occlusive dressing superficial Stage 3 = involves entire dermis, extending to subQ fat Does NOT extend past fascia Tx? Surgical debridement Stage 4 = muscle/tendon/bose exposed Tx? Surgical debridement General tx strategies? Repositioning + good nutritional support Marjolin’s ulcer = non-healing wound that is actually squamous cell carcinoma T1DM Pathophys? Autoimmune destruction of pancreas Ab? anti-GAD 65 (glutamic acid decarboxylase) anti-IA2 (islet tyrosine phosphatase 2) Islet cell autoantibodies Insulin autoantibodies Dx? A1c > 6.5% (twice) Fasting BG >= 126 (twice) Oral glucose tolerance test >= 200 (twice) Sxs of DM + random glucose > 200 Tx? Long-acting insulin + mealtime insulin Long-acting Glargine Detemir Rapid-acting Lispro Aspart Glulisine 3 HY complications Nephropathy Retinopathy & cataracts Neuropathy Chronic DM care A1c q3 months Foot exam annually Eye exam annually Microalbumin:Cr ratio annually Nephroprotection in DM? ACE-I GI bleed algorithm 1st step: ABCs + 2 large-bore IVs + IVFs 2nd step: NG lavage Clear fluid → go deeper Blood → UGIB → upper endoscopy Bilious fluid → have ruled out UGIB → proceed to colonoscopy See source → intervene as needed See nothing → CT angiography for large bleed Tagged RBC scan for smaller bleed Antiplatelet Pharmacology Aspirin Mechanism? Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 Clopidogrel/ticlopidine = P2Y12 (ADP receptor) blockers Mechanism? Inhibit platelet activation Abciximab/eptifibatide/tirofiban = GpIIbIIIa receptor blockers Mechanism? Inhibit platelet aggregation Ristocetin cofactor assay Issues with adhesion step → abnormal result Abnormal ristocetin cofactor assays: Von Willebrand disease Bernard Soulier disease Normal ristocetin cofactor assay: Glanzmann Thrombasthenia Von Willebrand disease effects on PTT? Increased Pathophys? vWF is a protecting group for Factor 8. Treatment of VWD? Desmopressin Mechanism? Increases release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH HSV1 vs HSV2. Oral herpes → HSV1 Genital herpes → HSV2 Dx? PCR (most up-to-date) Tzanck smear (outdated, not very sensitive, nonspecific) → intranuclear inclusions Brain area affected by HSV encephalitis? Temporal lobes CSF findings in HSV encephalitis? RBCs******* Tx herpes encephalitis? Acyclovir AE? Crystal nephropathy Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree. → reactive arthritis HLA? B27 Classic bug? Chlamydia Tx? steroids Need abx? Only if ongoing infection Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t hear a bee → Alport syndrome Inheritance? X-linked dominant Tx of NG & CT NG → treat empirically for both → ceftriaxone + azithro/doxy CT → azithro/doxy Hypovolemic Septic Neurogenic Cardiogenic CO low PCWP low SVR high*** CO high PCWP normal SVR low Tx? norepi CO low SVR low CO low PCWP high*** SVR high*** Tx anaphylactic shock? epinephrine Melanomas ABCDE A = asymmetry B = irregular borders C = color variation D = diameter > 6 mm E = evolving Dx? Full-thickness biopsy Excisional for small lesions Punch for larger lesions Most important prognostic factor → Breslow depth DM pharmacology Lactic acidosis → metformin Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis → metformin Hold before CT w/ contrast → metformin Weight gain → sulfonylureas & TZDs (-glitizones) Diarrhea → acarbose & migliton Inhibits disaccharidases (can’t reabsorb disaccharides) Recurrent UTIs → SGLT-2 inhibitors Weight loss → GLP-1 agonists (e.g. liraglutide, exenatide) & DPP4 inhibitors (-gliptins) Contraindicated in pt with HF → TZDs PPAR-gamma receptor found in kidney → water retention Contraindication in pt with MTC → GLP-1 agonists Biggest risk of hypoglycemia? Sulfonylureas RF esophageal adenocarcinoma Barrett’s esophagus RF esophageal squamous cell carcinoma Smoking Drinking Achalasia Location esophageal adenocarcinoma? Lower 1/3 Location esophageal squamous cell carcinoma? Upper 2/3 MC US? Adenocarcinoma MC worldwide? Squamous cell carcinoma Presentation? Dysphagia to solids → dysphagia to liquids Dx? EGD Staging? CT scan or esophageal US Factor V Leiden Pathophys? Resistance to protein C Dx? Activated Protein C resistance assay Patient needs super large doses of heparin to record any changes in PTT → AT-III deficiency Recall that heparin is a AT-III activator 35 yo with a hypercoagulable disorder that does not correct with mixing studies. → antiphospholipid antibody disorder Anaphylaxis in a patient with a long history of Hemophilia A → Ab against factor 8 that cause type 1 HSR with transfusion Hx of hemophilia, diagnosed 5 years ago. Before you would give them factor 8 concentrate and PTT would normalize. Now they’re requirizing larger doses of factor 8 to normalize PTT. → inhibitor formation (antibodies against clotting factors) Skin necrosis with Warfarin → protein C/S deficiency Prothrombin G20210 mutation → overproduction of factor II Rash in dermatomal distribution → VZV infection Contraindications to VZV vaccination? Pregnant woman Kid < 1 year Severe immunosuppression (e.g. HIV with CD4 < 200) Tx? Acyclovir If resistant, foscarnet Tzanck smear findings? Intranuclear inclusions Shingles vaccination guidelines? Adults over 60 #1 cause of ESRD in the US → DM nephropathy Histology? Kimmelsteil-Wilson nodules #2 cause of ESRD in the US → hypertensive nephropathy Pt with BP 240/150. How fast should you lower BP? 25% in first 24 hrs Drugs for hypertensive emergencies? Nicardipine Clevidipine Nitroprusside AE? Cyanide poisoning Tx? Amyl nitrate + thiosulfate OR hydroxocobalamin Labelol Renal protective medications in patients with DKD or hypertensive nephropathy? ACE-I Anemia + Cranial Nerve deficits + Thick bones + Carbonic Anhydrase 2 deficiency + Increased TRAP + Increased Alkaline Phosphatase. → osteopetrosis Pathophys? Carbonic anhydrase is defective → osteoclasts cannot produce acid to resorb bone Tx? IFN-gamma Osteoclasts are a specialized macrophage IFN-gamma is an activator of macrophages Clinical diagnostic criteria for Chronic Bronchitis Diagnostic criteria? 2 years 3 months/year of chronic cough PFT findings FEV1 low FEV1/FVC ratio low RV high TLC high Which PFT market can differentiate CB from emphysema? DLCO DLCO normal → CB DLCO low → emphysema ****** Tx acute exacerbation? Abx + bronchodilators + corticosteroids (“ABCs”) Prevention? Stop smoking! Afib #1 RF? Mitral stenosis #1 RF MS? Rheumatic fever #1 RF CAD and AAA: smoking #1 RF stroke and aortic dissection: HTN MC arrhythmia in hyperthyroidism → Afib MC site of ectopic foci in Afib → pulmonary veins EKG findings? “Irregularly irregular” + no P waves Location of emboli formation? LA appendage Who should be cardioverted back to sinus rhythm? New onset (<48 hrs) Afib Anticoagulated for 3 weeks + TEE negative for clot Afib that’s refractory to medical therapy Afib & HDUS Q on T phenomenon? Depolarization during T wave (repolarization) can cause QT prolongation → Torsades → death Prevention? SYNCHRONIZED cardioversion Tx? Rate control Beta blockers ND-CCB (e.g. verapamil, diltiazem) Rhythmic control Amiodarone Reducing stroke risk in Afib? Anticoagulation for CHA2DS2VASc score >= 2 Anticoagulation options Valvular cause (e.g. MS) → warfarin Any other cause → warfarin or NOAC (apixiban) Reversal of AC Warfarin → Vit K, four-factor PCC Heparin → protamine sulfate Dabigatran → idarucizumab Crusty, scaly, ulcerating lesion with heaped up borders → squamous cell carcinoma Classic location? Below Lower lip Precursor lesion? Actinic keratosis What if it arises in a scar or chronic wound? Marjolin ulcer Hypothermia + hypercapnia + non pitting edema + hyponatremia + HR of 35 + hypotension in a patient with a history of papillary thyroid cancer → myxedema coma Tx? Levothyroxine + steroids Lab findings? TSH high T3/T4 low LDL high Acute onset “dermatologic” breakout in a patient with a recent history of weight loss and epigastric pain. → Leser–Trélat sign associated with visceral malignancy pancreatic cancer Lymph node associations Supraclavicular → Virchow’s node Periumbilical → Sister Mary Joseph What are mets to the ovaries called? Kruckenberg tumor Classic bug associated with gastric cancer? H. pylori (MALToma) Classic histological finding in the diffuse type of gastric cancer? Signet ring cells RBCs without central pallor + elevated MCHC + anemia. → hereditary spherocytosis Inheritance? AD Pathophys? Deficiency of spectrin, ankyrin, or band 3.2 Intravascular or extravascular hemolysis? Extravascular (RBCs bound by IgG, attacked by splenic macrophages) Dx? Osmotic fragility test Eosin-5-maleimide Acidified glycerol lysis test Tx? Splenectomy Post-splenectomy preventative care? Strep pneumo Hinflue vaccine Neisseria Septic shock Hemodynamic parameters CO high SVR low PCWP normal MvO2 high Tx? IVF + norepi + broad-spectrum abx (cover MRSA + Pseudomonas) E.g. vanc + pip-tazo E.g

Hematology Basics & Hematopoiesis HEMATOLOGY What is it? Encompasses: Skill, Art, Instinct Relationships BM:circulation Plasma:RBC Hgb:RBC What Will I Learn? Students find Hematology difficult because it requires you to think in a new way. Begin with limited knowledge: Given Facts and you must be able to answer “WHY” Given images and you must be able to recognize and classify This Course Hematology I – MLTS 207 Intro Red Cells Hematology II – MLTS 208 White Cells Coagulation Our Tool Safety First Standard Precautions PPE Hand washing Proper disposal Proper cleaning Know what to do in case of an emergency Fire Spill Needle stick QA vs QC Quality Assurance Comprehensive Preanalytical – Analytical - Post-analytical Ensures reliable patient results = positive outcome Quality Control is Analytical only – focuses on actual measurement of the analyte Quality Control Standards / Calibrators Controls Statistical quality control system Normals AKA Reference ranges Plt 150 – 450 X 103/ul Unique to analyte, method, instrument and patient population Delta Check Critical Values Blood Basics Average blood volume 4 – 6 liters Blood pH = 7.35 – 7.45 Components of whole blood 55% plasma - 44% RBCs - 1% WBCs and platelets (buffy coat) Red Blood Cell (Erythrocyte or RBC) White Blood Cell (Leukocyte or WBC) Platelets (Thrombocyte) Plasma is 91.5% water and 8.5% solutes Reference Ranges (patient normals) RBC 4.2 – 5.4 X 1012/L (106/ul) females 4.7 – 6.1 X 1012/L (106/ul) males WBC 5 – 10 X 109/L (103/ul) Platelets 150 – 450 X 109/L (103/ul) Blood Smears (Slides) Cells evaluated in an area where red cells are almost touching but do not overlap Smears can be made by hand or mechanically Smears are stained with Wright’s stain Smear is examined on 100X using oil to evaluate RBC morphology RBC Morphology Red cells are biconcave disk that are 7 – 8 um in diameter with a volume - 90fL (femtoliters) When stained they appear as: Circular cells with distinct smooth margins Dull pinkish hue Area of central pallor Fairly uniform in size No nucleus or inclusions Platelet Morphology Platelets are 2 – 4um in diameter and discoid shaped they contain reddish-purple granules in a small amount of bluish cytoplasm and have no nucleus Leukocytes Segmented neutrophils - AKA segs or PMN Band neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Hematopoiesis Definition? Daily Production Quotas RBCs – 3 billion WBCs – 1.5 billion Plts – 2.5 billion Your body can: Constantly supply mature blood cells for circulation Mobilize Bone Marrow to increase production of a particular type of blood cell Compensate for decreased hematopoiesis by providing hematopoietic sites outside the BM The Beginning All blood cells are the progeny of hematopoietic pluriopotential stem cell In adults these are found in the bone marrow. Why? Monophyletic Theory A common precursor cell, the pluripotential stem cell, which under the influence of certain factors gives rise to each of the principle blood cell lines Cytokines - Pretty much universally accepted today based on clinical and experimental evidence and started with mice in 1961 Based on this theory, hematopoietic cells may be divided into 3 cellular catagories dependant on maturity 1 Multipotential stem cell able to self-renew and to differentiate into all blood cell lines 2 Committed progenitor cell destined to develop into distinct cell lines 3 Mature cells with specialized functions which have lost the capability to proliferate Hematopoietic Stem Cell Most important characteristic – must self renew Ability to differentiate into commited progenitor cells of lymphoid or myloid lineages Maturation Process (p.20) Hematopoiesis From Coception to Adulthood (p.16) Yolk Sac (embryonic hemoglobin) Begins 2 -3 weeks after fertilization and ceases after 8 – 10 weeks Fetal Liver (fetal hemoglobin) Production from about 2 – 7 months Liver is main site but spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, and kidney are also involved Bone Marrow – called medullary hematopoiesis Begins to function in 3rd month of gestation Primary site by the end of 5th month of gestation and continues after birth and throughout adulthood Children distal long bones Adults axial bones Extramedullary Hematopoiesis is hematopoiesis outside bone marrow Not a normal occurrence after 5th month of gestation Happens in certain disorders Occurs in liver and spleen Erythropoiesis Definition? Mature erythrocytes carry oxygen from the lungs to tissue where it is exchanged for CO2 Erythropoietin (a cytokine) Hormone produced by the kidney Stimulates red cell production Secreted daily in small amounts Kidney will sense hypoxia and secrete more if needed What happens when more EPO is secreted by the kidneys? Development of Red Cell Reduction in cell volume Condensation of chromatin (Loss of nucleoli) Decrease in N:C ratio (less nucleus – more cytoplasm) Decrease of RNA in cytoplasm Increased hemoglobin synthesis – to a point cell turns from blue to red Developmental Stages (images p33 - 35) Rubriblast (Pronormoblast) Each produces 8 – 16 mature red cells Stage where hemoglobin synthesis begins Prorubricyte (Basophilic Normoblast) Rubricyte (Polychromatophilic Normoblast) Last stage capable of division Large amounts of hemoglobin synthesized at this stage Metarubricyte (Orthochroimatophilic Normoblast) Nucleated Red Blood Cell (NRBC) seen on peripheral smear Reticulocyte (Polychromatophilic Erythrocyte) Non-nucleated (nucleus extruded) Contains residual RNA and mitochondria which gives cell bluish tinge with Wright’s stain Last stage to synthesize hemoglobin Part of this phase occurs in the bone marrow, later part takes place in circulating blood Mature Erythrocyte Stains pink because of large amount of hemoglobin No RNA or mitochondria = no synthesizing of proteins or lipids Normal lifespan 120 days Have You Seen Your Spleen Fist shaped organ located on the left side under the rib cage Blood filled organ consisting of Red pulp – red cell filtration Cull old or abnormal RBCs (Reticuloedothelial System) Pit RBC inclusions Remove Antibodies - spherocytes White pulp – lymphocyte processing Marginal zone – WBC & Plt storage 1/3 population of each Bone Marrow not Bowel Movement One of the largest organs in the body Inside you find erythroid cells, myloid cells, and megakaryocytes in various stages of development – stem cells, fatty tissue, osteoclasts, etc. As you age marrow in long bones is replaced by fat Adult marrow in iliac crest and sternum. M:E ratio -Myeloid to erythroid ratio Normally 3-4:1 Why are there more myloid cells in the bone marrow and more RBCs in circulation?

RVHS Anatomy and Physiology Fall Final Review Topics Unit 1 Introduction/Biological Review Compare and contrast anatomy vs. physiology How does the body maintain homeostasis? Difference between positive and negative feedback in the body and examples of each Levels of organization from smallest to largest What is the proper anatomical position? Distinguish between frontal vs. transverse vs. sagittal sections Be familiar with basic anatomical positions such as anterior and posterior, superior and inferior, ventral vs. dorsal Purpose of sodium-potassium pump and its role in maintaining resting membrane potential Unit 2 Nervous System Function of Nervous system Compare and contrast CNS vs PNS Sequence of nerve impulse through neuron Graded potentials vs. action potentials General steps in transmission of a nerve impulse (action potential) Function of neurotransmitters in conduction of a nerve impulse General functions of cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem Unit 3 Skeletal System Function of Skeletal system Major components of bone and how they contribute to characteristics of bone How many bones are in the human body? Axial vs. appendicular skeleton Review gross anatomy of a long bone Compare and contrast major joint types in the body Distinguish between compound and simple fractures How are bones formed in the body? What is the interaction between osteoclasts and osteoblasts in bone remodeling? Unit 4 Muscular System Function of Muscular System How many muscles are in the human body? What are the main types of muscle tissue and where are they found? Compare and contrast ligaments and tendons What are the steps necessary for muscle contraction? Functional unit of a muscle cell? What contributes to muscle fatigue? How do muscle cells get the energy they need to contract? (3 possible pathways) Unit 5 Digestive and Cardiovascular Systems Function of Digestive system Mechanical vs. Chemical digestion Be familiar with the organs in the alimentary canal (GI tract) and the accessory organs--both with the location and function Refer to digestive diagram from study guide Function of Cardiovascular system Label internal and external parts of the heart Trace the flow of blood through the heart Function of valves in heart and veins Contrast pulmonary vs. systemic circuit Know the coverings of the heart and layers of the heart How does the heart conduct electrical impulses What does an EKG show? Label a typical EKG with P, QRS, and T waves and what each corresponds to in cardiac cycle In general what happens during a myocardial infarction?

BSC1085C: EXAM 2 (CHAPTER 6 & 7)

Osteocytes, Osteoclasts, Osteoblasts

What is the cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed? Osteocytes What is the primary function of osteoblasts? To build bone What do ligaments attach? Bone to bone What is osteomyelitis? Bone inflammation that results from bacterial infection Which bone cells combine hydroxyapatite and collagen to form extracellular bone matrix? Osteoblasts Name two functions of the skeletal system. Support Protection If a person gets hit in the back of the head, then which bone will suffer? Occipital bone Where is the lambdoidal suture located? Parietal and occipital bones What do we call disease in adults characterized by softening of bones? Osteomalacia Your patient is admitted due to stenosis of the foramen magnum what structure is directly affected by this condition? Spinal cord What is primary mineral in bone? Calcium What are the basic units in compact bone tissue? Osteon or haversian system Which bone cell type is responsible type for breaking down bone? Osteoclast Most common bone disease is osteoporosis. what is the most common consequence? Fractures What chemical synthesized or ingested is necessary for calcium absorption through the intestines. Vitamin D What is the purpose of the proteoglycan molecules in the matrix of cartilage? Gives cartilage resilient nature because it holds water. What is the disease in children characterized by soft bone and swollen bones? Rickets What’s a band of connective tissue that connects muscle to the bone? Tendon What is the other name for shoulder blade? Scapula Which type of bone cell have ruffled borders and secrete acids? Osteoclasts Which type of bone cells lie in the lacunae? Osteocytes What is a passageway that connects neighboring osteocytes in osteon? Canaliculi What are the blood vessels that carry blood in the medulla cavity in the periosteum and run perpendicular to the bone? Volkman’s canals What is the carrying out surface of the bone called? Periosteum What type of lamellae are found in osteons? Concentric lamellae What type of bone has trabeculae be present in? Spongy or cancellous bone What is the function of red bone marrow? Blood cell production What is the cite of long terminal growth in long bones? Epiphyseal plates What do we call end of long bone? Epiphysis What does normal bone growth require adequate amounts in the diet? Calcium, phosphate, and vitamin d What is the sequence of events that produces growth in epiphyseal growth? Bone remodeling Where is the sagittal suture found? Between two parietal bones What type of joints is found in the appendicular skeleton? Synovial joints The cubital joint or the elbow is an example of what type of joint? Hinge joint. The knee joint is an example of what type of joint? Complex ellipsoid Questions asking about abduction, adduction, flexion, extension, etc. What results from the failure of the maxillary bones that failed to fuse Cleft palate Which portion of coxal bone does a person sit on? Ischial tuberosity Common name for sternum Breastbone The lateral malleolus is part of which bone Fibula Your patient is an avid runner and they complain about pain on their greater trochanter region. Where is it located? Femur What is the coxal bone known as? Hip bone. Which cranial bone forms eyebrow ridges Frontal What is an exaggerated region of the lumbar region? Lordosis What is an abnormal of lateral curvature of spine? Scoliosis What is the 1st cervical vertebrae? Atlas If your patient presented with a tumor in the posterior orbit what would be affected? Vision Patient that presents with a fractured mandible has a broken what? Lower jaw If new chondrocytes and new matrix is added on outside of tissue, what type of growth is it? Appositional growth Your patient has been diagnosed with a fracture of the dens. Which bone is affected? The axis Which fibers are collagen fibers that connect ligaments and tendons throughout the periosteum of the bone? Sharpey’s fibers What is the bone fracture in which the two bone sections do not separate? Hairline fracture Some flat and irregular bones of the skull have air filled spaces. What are these called? Sinus The flat bones of the skull develop from what type of formation. Intramembranous ossification Bowing your head is an example of what type of movement. Flexion What do we call the articulation of the teeth in the upper and lower jaws. Gomphosis What substance is responsible for slippery synovial fluid? Hyaluronic acid Which ligament is found at the head of the femur? The ligamentum teres Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posterior? Pronation What’s the most common type of arthritis? Osteoarthritis Which ligaments help keep the head erect? Ligamentum nuchae What’s the condition in which there is failure for vertebral lamellae to fuse? Spina bifida In what way are the thumb and big toe similar? Two phalanges only proximal and distal If your patient present with cerebral spinal fluid draining from ear where is there probably fracture located Temporal What results from damage to a nucleus fibrosus and a release of nucleus pulposus? Herniated discs What do we call the connective tissue sheath of cartilage? Perichondrium What is weight bearing ability of bone matrix due to the presence of Hydroxyapatite crystals In osteogenesis imperfecta the cause would be abnormally formed what Collagen The proportion of what determines the strength of the bone. Collagen to hydroxyapatite What type of bone is organized into thin sheets of tissue? Compact lamellar bones Which kind of bone contains interconnected plates called trabeculae Spongy bone What is the function of yellow bone marrow? Store adipose tissue or fat. What is proper event sequence in bone repair? Hematoma formation Callous formation Callus Ossification Bone remodeling What happens when bones adjust to stress or when bones grow or fractures heal Bone-remodeling You have a young boy as a patient and exhibited advanced development of sexual characteristics and rapid growth. What caused it. Testosterone secretion If an x-ray shows a black area of the epiphyseal plate what has happened Not completely calcified. What do we call the location where ossification begins in intramembranous ossification? Primary centers of ossification In which type of articulation are bones held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes Syndesmosis What is the function of bursa? Minimizes friction and acts as cushion. What provides smooth surface where bones meet? Articular or hyaline cartilage What do we call an abnormal forced extension beyond normal range of movement? Hyperextension Bones and their function Your patient is diagnosed with pituitary tumor. Where is the tumor located? Cella Turcica bone What do we call the junction of two pubic bones? Pubic symphysis What do we call the Olecranon process? Elbow If your patient was rear ended the trauma is what Whiplash Common is the name for patella The kneecap

Pe-osteoclasts, osteoblast and synovial fluid (copy)

Pe-osteoclasts, osteoblast and synovial fluid

Skeletal system: osteoclasts, blasts, and cytes

Typed of Bone Cells (osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteogenic

Unit 2 - Osteoblasts, Osteocytes, Osteoclasts, Ca Regulation