RS14 - Respiratory Diseases Part I

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Last updated 8:30 PM on 2/17/26
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109 Terms

1
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What causes respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn (RDS)?

Insufficient surfactant production by type II pneumocytes.

2
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In RDS, what happens to the alveoli because of surfactant deficiency?

The alveoli collapse.

3
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In RDS, what lines the collapsed alveoli microscopically?

Granular debris mixed with fibrin, forming hyaline membranes.

4
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Why is RDS also called "hyaline membrane disease"?

Because hyaline membranes line the alveoli.

5
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In RDS, why does hypoxia occur?

Hyaline membranes block gas exchange.

6
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What is the most common cause of death in premature infants?

Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).

7
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What is the most important risk factor for RDS?

Prematurity, especially before 28 weeks.

8
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What birth weight increases the risk of RDS?

Less than 2.5 kg.

9
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How does maternal diabetes affect the risk of RDS?

It increases the risk.

10
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How does being a second twin affect the risk of RDS?

It increases the risk.

11
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What are the classic clinical features of RDS?

Cyanosis, rapid breathing, and hypotension.

12
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What is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

Sudden, unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant that remains unexplained after autopsy and investigation.

13
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At what age is SIDS most common?

Between 2 and 4 months of age.

14
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What type of dysfunction is suspected in SIDS?

Autonomic dysfunction.

15
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What sleep abnormality may contribute to SIDS?

Abnormally prolonged sleep apnea.

16
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What are other names for SIDS?

Crib death and cot death.

17
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What sleep position increases the risk of SIDS?

Sleeping on the stomach.

18
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What maternal behaviors increase the risk of SIDS?

Smoking or drug use during pregnancy.

19
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What infections during pregnancy increase the risk of SIDS?

Maternal STD or UTI.

20
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What enzyme deficiency has been possibly linked to SIDS?

Low levels of butyrylcholinesterase.

21
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What conditions must be ruled out before diagnosing SIDS?

Homicide, metabolic disease, sepsis (meningitis), and congenital heart disease.

22
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What was the goal of the Safe to Sleep campaign?

To encourage placing babies on their back or side to sleep.

23
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How effective was the Safe to Sleep campaign?

It reduced SIDS cases by up to 50%.

24
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What is asthma?

Episodic, reversible bronchoconstriction caused by increased responsiveness of the tracheobronchial tree to stimuli.

25
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What underlying process plays a major role in asthma?

Persistent bronchial inflammation.

26
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What are the classic clinical symptoms of asthma?

Cough, wheezing, and dyspnea.

27
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What percentage of adults have asthma?

About 5%.

28
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What percentage of children have asthma?

About 7%.

29
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Is the frequency of asthma increasing or decreasing?

Increasing.

30
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What inflammatory mediators are released in all types of asthma?

Histamine and cytokines.

31
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What are the main effects of mediator release in asthma?

Inflammation, hypersecretion of mucus, diminished ciliary activity, and bronchospasm.

32
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What happens to airway smooth muscle in asthma?

It undergoes hypertrophy and contraction.

33
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What happens to goblet cells in asthma?

Goblet cells undergo hyperplasia.

34
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What happens to mucous glands in asthma?

They enlarge.

35
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What fills the bronchi and bronchioles in asthma?

Thick mucus.

36
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What type of inflammatory cells are commonly seen in asthma?

Eosinophils.

37
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What type of hypersensitivity reaction is extrinsic (atopic) asthma?

Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

38
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What is atopy?

A predisposition to developing hypersensitivity against common allergens.

39
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Is extrinsic asthma the most common form of asthma?

Yes.

40
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What immunoglobulin is elevated in extrinsic asthma?

IgE.

41
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At what age does extrinsic asthma typically begin?

Childhood or teenage years.

42
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Does extrinsic asthma often show seasonal variation?

Yes.

43
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Is there usually a personal or family history of allergies in extrinsic asthma?

Yes.

44
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What happens when an allergen cross-links IgE on mast cells in extrinsic asthma?

Mast cells degranulate.

45
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What mediators are released from mast cells in extrinsic asthma?

Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4.

46
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What complement components can also trigger attacks in extrinsic asthma?

C3a and C5a.

47
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What are the final airway effects of extrinsic asthma?

Edema, mucus hypersecretion, bronchoconstriction, and eosinophil-mediated inflammation.

48
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What triggers intrinsic (non-atopic) asthma?

Non-allergic stimuli such as chemicals (e.g., aspirin), cold air, or infections.

49
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Are IgE levels elevated in intrinsic asthma?

No, they are low to normal.

50
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At what age does intrinsic asthma typically begin?

After age 30.

51
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Is there usually a personal or family allergy history in intrinsic asthma?

No.

52
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Does intrinsic asthma have a seasonal pattern?

No.

53
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Are intrinsic asthma attacks intermittent or continuous?

Continuous.

54
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What severe complication is more common in intrinsic asthma?

Status asthmaticus.

55
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What neural pathway contributes to intrinsic asthma?

Vagus nerve-mediated reflexes affecting smooth muscle and mucous cells.

56
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Do extrinsic and intrinsic asthma have different final airway effects?

No — both cause edema, mucus hypersecretion, bronchoconstriction, and inflammation.

57
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What is status asthmaticus?

A severe asthma attack that does not respond to therapy.

58
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How long can status asthmaticus last?

Hours to days.

59
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Why can status asthmaticus be life-threatening?

It can cause fatigue, dehydration, shock, drug intoxication, and death.

60
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What two diseases make up chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

61
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What is the usual cause of both emphysema and chronic bronchitis?

Smoking.

62
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Do emphysema and chronic bronchitis have the same pathogenesis?

No, but they often coexist.

63
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What is emphysema?

Enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchiole with destruction of alveolar walls.

64
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How does emphysema affect oxygen exchange?

It reduces surface area and decreases oxygen diffusing capacity.

65
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What happens to alveolar walls in emphysema?

They are destroyed.

66
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Why do patients with emphysema have difficulty exhaling?

Loss of elastic recoil prevents effective air expulsion.

67
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What compensatory change occurs in emphysema?

Overinflation and hyperventilation.

68
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What cardiac complication can result from emphysema?

Pulmonary hypertension leading to cor pulmonale.

69
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Why are patients with emphysema called "pink puffers"?

They hyperventilate, maintaining relatively normal oxygenation, so they are not cyanotic.

70
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What physical feature is common in "pink puffers"?

Barrel chest.

71
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How does smoking contribute to emphysema?

It stimulates elastase release and inhibits α-1 antitrypsin.

72
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What is the role of α-1 antitrypsin in the lungs?

It inhibits elastase.

73
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What happens when α-1 antitrypsin is deficient?

Unopposed elastase destroys elastic fibers.

74
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What genotype is associated with α-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

PiZZ.

75
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Which type of emphysema accounts for about 75% of cases?

Centrilobular emphysema.

76
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Which lung region is usually affected in centrilobular emphysema?

Upper lobes.

77
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Who most commonly develops centrilobular emphysema?

Smokers.

78
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Which type of emphysema is most associated with α-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

Panlobular emphysema.

79
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Which lung region is more affected in panlobular emphysema?

Lower lobes.

80
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What is the diagnostic definition of chronic bronchitis?

Productive cough on most days for at least 3 months per year for 2 or more years.

81
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What is the primary pathologic feature of chronic bronchitis?

Excessive mucus production due to mucous gland hyperplasia.

82
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What happens to ciliary function in chronic bronchitis?

It is impaired, reducing mucus clearance.

83
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What type of epithelial change can occur in chronic bronchitis?

Squamous metaplasia.

84
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What airway changes occur in chronic bronchitis?

Bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction.

85
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What major cardiac complication can result from chronic bronchitis?

Cor pulmonale.

86
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Why are patients with chronic bronchitis called "blue bloaters"?

Poor ventilation causes hypoxemia (blue), and cor pulmonale causes edema (bloated).

87
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What characterizes restrictive lung diseases?

Lung stiffness and reduced expansion.

88
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What is the end-stage outcome of restrictive lung diseases?

Fibrosis.

89
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What does ARDS stand for?

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome.

90
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What is diffuse alveolar damage (DAD)?

The morphologic counterpart of ARDS.

91
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What causes hyaline membrane formation in DAD?

Damage to alveolar epithelial cells and inflammatory exudate.

92
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What happens in the early phase of ARDS/DAD?

Pulmonary edema and high mortality (about 50%).

93
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What happens in later phases of ARDS/DAD?

Fibrosis.

94
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What does idiopathic mean in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

The cause is unknown.

95
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What are the main symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

Progressive dyspnea and dry cough.

96
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What is the typical outcome of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

Most patients die within 1 to 20 years.

97
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What type of disease is sarcoidosis?

A multi-system granulomatous disease.

98
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What type of granulomas are seen in sarcoidosis?

Non-caseating granulomas.

99
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Which populations are most affected by sarcoidosis?

People of African ancestry and patients under age 40.

100
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What is the classic chest X-ray finding in sarcoidosis?

Bilateral hilar adenopathy.

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