Wk. 7 - Acute Respiratory Conditions Flashcards Foreign Language
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40 Terms
A patient with suspected influenza presents to the clinic. Which symptom is most characteristic of influenza? A. Gradual onset of fatigue B. Sudden onset fever and myalgia C. Productive cough with green sputum D. Loss of taste and smell
B
(SATA) Which symptoms are commonly associated with COVID-19? A. Fever B. Loss of taste or smell C. Productive cough with purulent sputum D. Dyspnea E. Fatigue
A,B,D,E
Which best explains why influenza increases the risk of secondary bacterial pneumonia? A. Increased pulmonary blood flow B. Damage to ciliated epithelial cells C. Increased surfactant production D. Bronchoconstriction
B
True or False: COVID-19 can cause multi-organ dysfunction due to systemic inflammation.
True
A patient with COVID-19 develops worsening hypoxemia. Which pathophysiologic process is most responsible? A. Increased hemoglobin production B. Alveolar damage and inflammation C. Increased cardiac output D. Bronchial dilation
B
Which assessment finding is most consistent with pneumonia? A. Dry cough and wheezing B. Crackles and productive cough C. Bradycardia and hypotension D. Clear lung sounds
B
(SATA) Pneumonia impairs gas exchange due to: A. Fluid in alveoli B. Increased surfactant C. Inflammation D. Alveolar collapse E. Bronchodilation
A,C,D
Which finding indicates worsening pneumonia? A. Improved appetite B. Increased oxygen saturation C. Increased work of breathing D. Decreased temperature
C
Respiratory failure occurs when: A. The heart cannot pump effectively B. The lungs cannot maintain adequate gas exchange C. Blood pressure is low D. Oxygen saturation is above 95%
B
(SATA) Which mechanisms impair gas exchange? A. V/Q mismatch B. Shunting C. Diffusion limitation D. Increased cardiac output E. Bronchodilation
A,B,C
A patient with pneumonia develops hypoxemia due to: A. High V/Q ratio B. Low V/Q ratio C. Increased perfusion D. Hyperventilation
B
True or False: Shunting occurs when blood passes through the lungs without participating in gas exchange.
True
Which ABG indicates hypoxemic respiratory failure? A. PaOâ‚‚ 85, PaCOâ‚‚ 40 B. PaOâ‚‚ 55, PaCOâ‚‚ 38 C. PaOâ‚‚ 90, PaCOâ‚‚ 55 D. PaOâ‚‚ 75, PaCOâ‚‚ 50
B
Which ABG indicates hypercapnic respiratory failure? A. pH 7.45, PaCOâ‚‚ 30 B. pH 7.40, PaCOâ‚‚ 40 C. pH 7.30, PaCOâ‚‚ 55 D. pH 7.48, PaCOâ‚‚ 35
C
(SATA) Causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure include: A. COPD B. Neuromuscular disease C. CNS depression D. Pulmonary embolism E. Chest wall injury
A,B,C,E
What is the earliest sign of respiratory failure in adults? A. Cyanosis B. Bradycardia C. Restlessness D. Hypotension
C
(SATA) Late signs of respiratory failure include: A. Cyanosis B. Bradycardia C. Tachycardia D. Hypotension E. Bradypnea
A,B,D,E
A pediatric patient shows head bobbing and weak cry. This indicates: A. Early distress B. Improvement C. Late respiratory failure D. Normal finding
C
True or False: Tachypnea is an early compensatory response in respiratory distress.
True
What is the nurse’s FIRST priority in a patient with respiratory distress? A. Administer antibiotics B. Ensure airway patency C. Draw ABGs D. Obtain history
B
(SATA) Which interventions promote oxygenation? A. High Fowler’s position B. Oxygen therapy C. Encourage coughing D. Limit fluid intake E. Suctioning
A,B,C,E
A patient’s respiratory rate drops from 30 to 8. What does this indicate? A. Improvement B. Anxiety reduction C. Respiratory fatigue D. Stable condition
C
What is the most common symptom of a pulmonary embolism? A. Fever B. Sudden dyspnea C. Productive cough D. Bradycardia
B
(SATA) Risk factors for PE include: A. Immobility B. Smoking C. Pregnancy D. Hypertension E. Surgery
A,B,C,E
PE causes hypoxemia primarily due to: A. Increased ventilation B. V/Q mismatch C. Bronchoconstriction D. Increased diffusion
B
True or False: A normal D-dimer can help rule out PE in low-risk patients.
True
Gold standard test for PE: A. Chest X-ray B. ECG C. CT pulmonary angiography D. ABG
C
Which ABG finding is common in PE? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Normal ABG
B
(SATA) Treatments for PE include: A. Anticoagulants B. Thrombolytics C. Oxygen therapy D. Bronchodilators E. Surgical thrombectomy
A,B,C,E
Which lab is used to monitor warfarin? A. aPTT B. INR C. Anti-Xa D. Platelets
B
Which lab monitors unfractionated heparin? A. INR B. aPTT C. D-dimer D. Hemoglobin
B
(SATA) Which medications require monitoring for bleeding? A. Alteplase (tPA) B. Heparin C. Warfarin D. Apixaban E. Enoxaparin
A,B,C,D,E
ARDS is characterized by: A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema B. Refractory hypoxemia C. Increased cardiac output D. Normal lung compliance
B
(SATA) Causes of ARDS include: A. Sepsis B. Pneumonia C. Aspiration D. Hypertension E. Trauma
A,B,C,E
Which is an EARLY sign of ARDS? A. Cyanosis B. Dyspnea C. Bradycardia D. Hypotension
B
Chest X-ray in ARDS shows: A. Clear lungs B. Unilateral infiltrates C. Bilateral diffuse infiltrates D. Pneumothorax
B
A PaOâ‚‚/FiOâ‚‚ ratio of 150 indicates: A. Mild ARDS B. Moderate ARDS C. Severe ARDS D. Normal
B
True or False: ARDS patients often develop respiratory alkalosis early and acidosis later.
True
(SATA) ARDS management includes: A. Mechanical ventilation with PEEP B. Low tidal volume ventilation C. Prone positioning D. High fluid administration E. Treat underlying cause
A,B,C,E
What is the primary benefit of prone positioning in ARDS? A. Decreases cardiac output B. Improves V/Q matching C. Increases COâ‚‚ retention D. Reduces blood pressure
B
