Unit 3 Module C

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Last updated 8:47 PM on 3/19/26
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76 Terms

1
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What line of defense is adaptive (acquired) immunity?

The third line of defense

2
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What two features distinguish adaptive immunity from innate immunity?

Specificity and memory.

3
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What does specificity mean in adaptive immunity?

The ability to recognize and respond to a single, precise antigen.

4
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What does immunological memory mean?

Faster and stronger immune responses upon subsequent exposures to the same antigen.

5
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What are four major functions of cell surface markers in immunity?

Attach to foreign antigens; recognize self antigens; receive chemical messages; transmit chemical messages between immune cells.

6
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What is MHC?

Major Histocompatibility Complex; cell surface markers involved in immune recognition.

7
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Where is Class I MHC found?

On all nucleated cells (not red blood cells).

8
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What is the function of Class I MHC?

Displays “self” markers for immune recognition.

9
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Where is Class II MHC found?

Only on antigen‑presenting cells (APCs).

10
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What is the function of Class II MHC?

Presents processed antigens to T helper (CD4âș) cells.

11
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What two types of lymphocytes carry out adaptive immunity?

B cells and T cells.

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Where do B cells mature?

Bone marrow.

13
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Where do T cells mature?

Thymus.

14
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What type of antigens do B cell receptors bind?

Free (unprocessed) antigens.

15
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What type of antigens do T cell receptors bind?

Processed antigens presented with MHC molecules.

16
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What are the specific receptors on B cells called?

Immunoglobulins (antibodies).

17
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What is the variable region of an antibody?

The antigen‑binding site.

18
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Why is antibody variability important?

It allows recognition of a wide variety of antigens.

19
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What are two major T cell receptor classes?

CD4 and CD8.

20
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What do B cells differentiate into after activation?

Plasma cells and memory B cells.

21
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What type of immunity do B cells mediate?

Antibody‑mediated (humoral) immunity.

22
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Can B cells act as antigen‑presenting cells?

Yes.

23
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What type of immunity do T cells mediate?

Cell‑mediated immunity.

24
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Do T cells produce antibodies?

No.

25
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What do T cells act directly against?

Infected, abnormal, or foreign cells.

26
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What is an antigen?

Any substance capable of triggering a specific immune response.

27
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How does molecular weight affect antigen strength?

<1,000 MW: rarely antigenic; 1,000–10,000 MW: weak antigens; >100,000 MW: most immunogenic.

28
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What is an epitope?

The specific antigen fragment recognized by immune cells.

29
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What is a hapten?

A small molecule that is only antigenic when attached to a larger carrier molecule.

30
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What three cells can function as antigen‑presenting cells?

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

31
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Which cell type must recognize processed antigens?

T helper (CD4âș) cells.

32
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Where do APCs display processed antigens?

On Class II MHC molecules.

33
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What receptor on T helper cells recognizes the antigen?

T cell receptor (TCR).

34
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What role does CD4 play during antigen recognition?

Stabilizes binding to MHC II.

35
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What cytokine activates T helper cells?

Interleukin‑1 (IL‑1).

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What cytokine do activated T helper cells release to stimulate B and T cells?

Interleukin‑2 (IL‑2).

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What happens to B cells after activation by T helper cells?

Clonal expansion.

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What is the function of plasma cells?

Short‑lived cells that secrete large amounts of antibodies.

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What is the function of memory B cells?

Provide long‑term immunity and rapid response upon re‑exposure.

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What is neutralization?

Antibodies block viruses or toxins from attaching to host cells.

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What is opsonization?

Antibodies coat microbes to enhance phagocytosis.

42
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What is agglutination?

Antibody‑mediated clumping of antigens.

43
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What is precipitation?

Formation of insoluble antigen‑antibody complexes.

44
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What is complement fixation?

Activation of complement leading to cell lysis, inflammation, and enhanced phagocytosis.

45
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Which antibody is most abundant in serum?

IgG.

46
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Which antibody can cross the placenta?

IgG.

47
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Which antibody is found in secretions and breast milk?

IgA.

48
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Which antibody is associated with allergies?

IgE.

49
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Which antibody is a pentamer and produced first?

IgM.

50
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Which antibodies can fix complement?

IgG and IgM.

51
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Which antibody functions as a B‑cell receptor?

IgD.

52
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Which antibody is produced first during the primary response?

IgM.

53
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Which antibody follows in greater concentration during the primary response?

IgG.

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Why is there no lag time in the secondary (anamnestic) response?

Memory B cells are already present.

55
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Which antibody predominates during the secondary immune response?

IgG

56
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What are the two main types of T cells?

T helper (CD4âș) and T cytotoxic (CD8âș).

57
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Which T cells are severely reduced in AIDS patients?

T helper (CD4âș) cells.

58
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What is the primary function of T helper cells?

Coordinate immune responses by releasing cytokines.

59
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What is the primary function of T cytotoxic cells?

Destroy virus‑infected, cancerous, or foreign cells.

60
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What substances do cytotoxic T cells release to kill target cells?

Perforin and granzymes.

61
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How do superantigens activate the immune system?

They bind MHC II and T‑cell receptors simultaneously, causing nonspecific T‑cell activation.

62
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Why are superantigens dangerous?

They cause excessive cytokine release leading to toxic shock and organ failure.

63
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What is active immunity?

Immunity produced by an individual’s own immune response.

64
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What is passive immunity?

Immunity gained through pre‑formed antibodies.

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What is natural immunity?

Immunity acquired without medical intervention.

66
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What is artificial immunity?

Immunity acquired through medical procedures.

67
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Example of natural active immunity

Recovery from an infection.

68
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Example of natural passive immunity

Maternal antibodies passed through breast milk.

69
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Example of artificial active immunity

Vaccination

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Example of artificial passive immunity

Injection of immune serum or antibodies.

71
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What does vaccination expose the body to?

Immunogenic but non‑pathogenic material.

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What are the requirements for an effective vaccine?

Strong immune response, long‑term memory, safety, stability, and no disease caused.

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What are the drawbacks of killed or inactivated vaccines?

Weaker immune response and need for booster shots.

74
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What is the advantage of attenuated vaccines?

Long‑lasting immunity with fewer doses.

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What is the risk of attenuated vaccines?

Reversion to a virulent strain.

76
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What is herd immunity?

Population‑level immunity that reduces disease spread and protects nonimmune individuals.

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