General Overview (RBCs)

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258 Terms

1
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what is crucial for oxygen delivery from the lungs to the tissues and transporting CO2 from tissues back to the lungs?

hemoglobin

2
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about how big are RBCs?

6-8 microns

3
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what is measured in a photometer at 540nm after the addition of drabkin’s reagent?

hemoglobin

4
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what reagent converts hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin?

drabkin’s reagent

5
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what refers to the ratio of packed volume of RBCs to the volume of whole blood?

hematocrit

6
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what is the normal ratio range of hematocrit?

45-50%

7
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within how many hours should a blood smear be prepared?

4 hours of collection

8
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within how many hours should an evacuated EDTA specimen be analyzed?

5 hours of collection

9
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generally, at what temperature should edta specimens be stored at (facility dependent)?

room temperature until analysis

10
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an EDTA specimen must be filled within ±___% of the stated volume?

10

11
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EDTA tubes should be filled appropriately because there will be an imbalance of anticoagulant to sample ratio. excess EDTA in the sample may result in erroneously low ____.

cell counts; hematocrit

12
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what cells have cytoplasmic granules with neutral pH and pick up some staining characteristics from both stains (thiazine-eosinate complex)?

neutrophils

13
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what are the two dyes used in romanowsky stains?

eosin y and methylene blue

14
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what dye is basic and stains acidic cellular components (RNA, DNA, basophil granules) from blue-grey to dark blue?

methylene blue

15
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RNA, DNA, basophil granules are ____ components.

acidic

16
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what dye is acidic and stains basic cellular components (hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules) from light/deep pink to red or orange in color?

eosin

17
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hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules are ____ components.

basic

18
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what reflects RBC diameter (volume) on a wright-stained smear?

MCV

19
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what is the normal range of MCV?

80-100 fL

20
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what does an MCV of <80 refer to?

microcytic anemia

21
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what does an MCV of 80-100 refer to?

normocytic anemia

22
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what does an MCV of >100 refer to?

macrocytic anemia

23
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what reflects the weight of hemoglobin in the average RBC?

MCH

24
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what refers to the concentration of the average RBC (Hgb/HCT)?

MCHC

25
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what is the normal range of MCH?

26-34 pg

26
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what is the normal range of MCHC?

32-36 g/dL

27
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what does an MCHC of <32 refer to?

hypochromic anemia

28
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what reflects the degree of volume variation?

RDW

29
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what term refers to a variation in diameter?

anisocytosis

30
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if cells are similar in size, the RDW is ____.

low

31
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if some cells are little and some are big, the RDW is ____.

high

32
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what is the normal range of RDW?

12-14.5

33
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what refers to RBCs that contain RNA?

reticulocytes

34
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what percent of RBCs do reticulocytes normally make up?

1.5-2.5%

35
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after how many hours will RNA in reticulocytes break down and will allow the RBCs to be normochromic?

24-48 hours

36
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what is the reference interval for WBC count in an adult?

4.5-11 × 109/L

37
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what is the reference interval for WBC count in a newborn?

9-10 × 109/L

38
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what is the reference interval for WBC count in a child over 1?

5-17 × 109/L

39
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what is the reference level of platelets?

150-450 × 109/L

40
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to the yolk sac and AGM?

mesoblastic

41
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to the liver and spleen?

hepatic

42
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to bone marrow?

medullary

43
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to development around the 19th day after fertilization?

mesoblastic

44
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to embryonic hemoglobins (Gower I, Gower II, Portland) present?

mesoblastic

45
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to development at 5-7 weeks?

hepatic

46
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to recognizable clusters developing erythroblasts, granulocytes, and monocytes present?

hepatic

47
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to HbF and small amounts of HbA present?

hepatic

48
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what phase of hematopoiesis involves the contribution of other organs (thymus, spleen, kidneys)?

hepatic

49
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to development between the fourth and fifth month of fetal development?

medullary

50
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by the end of which week will bone marrow become the primary hematopoietic site?

week 24 (6 months)

51
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what cells are produced by mesenchymal cells that support hematopoietic cells and myeloid development?

stromal cells

52
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what phase of hematopoiesis refers to HbF and HbA present?

medullary

53
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____ lymphoid organ development refers to bone marrow for T and B cells and thymus for T cell development.

primary

54
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____ lymphoid organ development refers to spleen, lymph nodes, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

secondary

55
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what refers to hematopoietically active marrow?

red marrow

56
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in bone marrow, what radiated out from the cortex into a central cavity forming honeycomb structures?

trabeculae

57
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what refers to cells specialized for fat storage in connective tissue?

adipocytes

58
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during infancy and childhood, all bones are ____ and by the age of 4, adipocytes will increase in number.

red marrow

59
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what refers to hematopoietically inactive marrow (mostly fat cells and adipocytes)?

yellow marrow

60
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how is % bone marrow cellularity calculated?

100 - age (± 10%)

61
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what stain is used for bone marrow aspirate or imprint examination?

prussian blue iron stain

62
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what term refers to being capable of giving rise to several different cell types?

pluripotent

63
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what gives rise to CFU-GEMM?

pluripotent stem cells

64
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what gives rise to BFU-E?

CFU-GEMM

65
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what are the two erythroid progenitors?

BFU-E; CFU-E

66
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which erythroid progenitor is less responsive to EPO (only a few EPO receptors, larger colonies in culture)?

BFU-E

67
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which erythroid progenitor is highly responsive to and dependent on EPO for survival (has many EPO receptors, smaller colonies in culture)?

CFU-E

68
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the size of the nucleus of an erythroid cell decreases as they mature (decrease in nucleus/cytoplasm ratio). true or false?

true

69
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what becomes coarser and denser as erythroid cells mature?

chromatin

70
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what term refers to highly dense?

pyknotic

71
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the more RNA in the cytoplasm (the most active the protein synthesis), the more basophilia. true or false?

true

72
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the more hemoglobin in the cytoplasm, the less basophilia. true or false?

true

73
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what are the 3 types of hemoglobins found in a normal adult?

HbA, HbA2, HbF

74
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which marrow does not produce blood cells?

yellow marrow

75
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what is the preferred site of collection for bone marrow specimens?

posterior iliac crest (spine) of the pelvis

76
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what is a potential but less preferred collection site for bone marrow?

anterior superior iliac crest (spine) of the pelvis

77
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what specimen is preferred for bone marrow studies that can reduce the speed of cell death?

heparin

78
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what pathophysiologic change of the liver may result in hemoglobin metabolizing to bilirubin (icterus, icteric, icter) and jaundice?

hemolytic anemia

79
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stem cells and progenitors can be morphologically recognizable on a smear. true or false?

false

80
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which cell(s) is found only in the bone marrow?

pronormoblast, basophilic normoblast, polychromatic normoblast, orthochromic normoblast

81
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which cells are located 1-2 days in the bone marrow and 1 more day in peripheral blood and will become a mature RBC due to the spleen polishing the membrane and pitting out inclusions?

polychromatic erythrocytes (reticulocytes)

82
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what is the life span of a pronormoblast?

24 hours

83
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what is the lifespan of a basophilic normoblast?

24 hours

84
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what is the lifespan of polychromatic normoblasts?

30 hours

85
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what is the lifespan of orthochromic normoblasts?

48 hours

86
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hypoxia may stimulate ____.

erythropoiesis

87
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cytokines by macrophages may stimulate ____.

erythropoiesis

88
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what pathway detoxifies accumulated peroxide?

hexose monophosphate

89
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what pathway diverts glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) to pentose phosphate by the action of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)?

hexose monophosphate

90
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what is the most common RBC enzyme deficiency?

G6PD deficiency

91
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what refers to a rare dominant hereditary disorder where glutamate replaces valine in position 67 on the beta chain of the hemoglobin molecule?

Hgb M

92
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what disorder causes a permanently increased level of methemoglobin ranging between 15-30%?

Hgb M

93
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patients with which disorder are cyanotic and do not exhibit any other symptoms?

Hgb M

94
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what percent of an erythrocyte are proteins?

52%

95
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what percent of an erythrocyte are CHO?

8%

96
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what percent of an erythrocyte are lipids?

40%

97
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what refers to programmed cell death?

apoptosis

98
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what binds to globin chains of hemoglobin and maintains hemoglobin in deoxygenated form and facilitates O2 delivery to tissues?

2,3-BPG

99
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____ refers to Fe2+.

hemoglobin

100
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____ refers to Fe3+.

methemoglobin

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