Virginia Tech Microbiology 2604 (Popham): Test 4 MC

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35 Terms

1
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Which of the following functions as an antigen presenting cell?

A: B- cell receptor

B: Toll like receptor

C: Lymphocyte receptor

D: Major histocompatibility complex

E: Antibody

D: Major histocompatibility complex

2
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Which of the following is used by phagocytes to kill bacteria?

A: Antibiotics

B: Hydrogen peroxide

C: Apoptosis

D: Nucleases

E: Granzymes

B: Hydrogen peroxide

3
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Which of the following is considered a lymphocyte

A: B cell

B: D cell

C: Dendritic cell

D: Neutrophil

E: Mast cell

A: B cell

4
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In the innate immune response, Toll like receptors (TLRs) recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs). Peptidoglycan of gram positive bacteria is associated by which receptor?

A: TLR4

B: TLR2

C: TLR6

D: TLR1

B: TLR2

5
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Which of the following is NOT associated with the innate immune system?

A: Dendritic cells

B: PRRs and PAMPs

C: Non-specific for pathogen species

D: Requires previous exposure to the pathogen

E: All of the above

D: Requires previous exposure to the pathogen

6
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Cytokines are:

A: Proteins that insert in bacterial membranes leading to cell death

B: Antibodies that recognize virus infected cells

C: Proteins that allow immune cells to recognize foreign antigens

D: Proteins that stimulate the growth of tumor cells

E: Proteins that stimulate the activity of immune cells

E: Proteins that stimulate the activity of immune cells

7
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With regard to immunity, the term tolerance means what?

A: That some microorganisms are allowed to remain in the body while others are not

B: That some infectious agents are recognized immediately while response to others is delayed

C:That the immune system does not recognize self antigens

D: That the immune system is unable to recognize certain rare foreign antigens

E: That repeated exposure to an antigen results in loss of an allergy

C:That the immune system does not recognize self antigens

8
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Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?

A: IgA

B: IgM

C: IgG

D: IgD

E: IgE

C: IgG

9
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Class 2 MHC is present on:

A: All Nucleated cells

B: T cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

C: T cells, Neutrophils, and macrophages

D: Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

D: Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

10
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T cytotoxic cells are involved in:

A: The release of cytokines and chemokines to further enhance phagocytosis

B: The direct killing of infected host cells

C: The release of cytokines to stimulate B cell differentiation

D: release of toxins to kill bacterial cells

E: Differentiation into plasma cells to produce antibodies

B: The direct killing of infected host cells

11
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The term "Oponization" refers to:

A: Specific interaction between a normal microbial flora species and a host cell surface

B: Attachment of a viral particle to a host cell surface

C: Removal of the viral capsid from the nucleic acid following cell entry

D: Binding of an antibody to a pathogen leading to increased phagocytosis

E: Recognition of a pathogen PAMP by a phagocyte

D: Binding of an antibody to a pathogen leading to increased phagocytosis

12
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A toxoid is:

A: A pathogen that produces a toxin protein

B: A killed cell vaccine that produces inflammation

C: An inactivated toxin protein used as a vaccine

D: A pathogen that infects the colon

E: A chemical that kills host cells that are infected by the pathogen

C: An inactivated toxin protein used as a vaccine

13
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Which statement is FALSE regarding microflora on skin?

A: The flora present remains constant throughout life

B: The dry, acidic, salty environment on the skin inhibits the growth of many microbial species

C: Gram positive cocci are the majority of skin flora

D: Flora can be composed of aerobes and anaerobes

E: All of the above are true

A: The flora present remains constant throughout life

14
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During the primary response of the immune system to a new antigen, the most abundant antibodies produced to recognize the antigen are in which class?

A: IgG

B: IgA

C: IgM

D: IgG

C: IgM

15
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The portion of the T-Cell receptor that recognizes the antigen is the:

A: Fc region

B: Constant region

C: Variable region

D: Antigen region

E: Protein region

C: Variable region

16
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Which of the following alters vaginal microflora?

A: Fertility

B: Age

C: Hormone levels

D: pH

E: All of the above

E: All of the above

17
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Which of the following is FALSE concerning the bacteria found in the colon

A: E.Coli makes up a majority of the bacteria

B: Methanobrevibacter is a rare archaeal member of the human flora

C: There are more bacteria in the colon than in all other parts of thebody

D: Many strict anaerobes are found here

A: E.Coli makes up a majority of the bacteria

18
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How does sugar aid in the process of cavity development?

A: the sucrose can be broken down by fermentation

B: creation of acid byproducts promotes enamel decay

C: Sucrose is used to produce a polysaccharide that allows for bacterial adherence to tooth surfaces

D: All of the above

E: None of the above

D: All of the above

19
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Gastric cancer can result from prolonged infection by what genus of bacteria?

A: Bacteroides

B: Helicobacter

C: Escherichia

D: Clostridium

E: Methanobrevibacter

B: Helicobacter

20
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Some organisms produce lipases, which are molecules that can do what?

A: Inactivate antibiotics

B: Prevent phagocytosis

C: Lyse red blood cells

D: Bind oron

E: Increase the viscosity of mucous membranes

C: Lyse red blood cells

21
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What types of organisms make up the normal microbial flora of the lower respiratory tract?

A: Gram positive cocci

B: Gram negative rods

C: Mycobacteria

D: All of the above

E: None of the above, this region has little or no flora

E: None of the above, this region has little or no flora

22
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Some strains of E.Coli cause lower UTIs, other strains frequently cause bladder infections and some do other bad shit. Classifying these strains by the severity of the disease they cause is a measure to their:

A: Pathogenicity

B: Virulence

C: Metabolic capacity

D: Dispersal

E: Genome size

B: Virulence

23
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What type of nutrient is frequently a limiting factor in the growth of microorganisms within a host?

A: iron

B: Lipids

C: Magnesium

D: Proteins

E: Sugars

A: iron

24
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What is a major determining factor in determining if a streptococcus strain can cause disease?

A: The rare occurrence of a human coming in contact with streptococcus

B: The motility of the streptococcus strain

C: The production of endotoxin by the streptococcus strain

D: The presence of a capsule on the streptococcus cells

D: The presence of a capsule on the streptococcus cells

25
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Some bacterial pathogens produce pili that allow them to:

A: Lyse red blood cells

B: Avoid infection by bacteriophage

C: Adhere to surfaces

D: Avoid pahgocytosis

E: Avoid binding of complement proteins

C: Adhere to surfaces

26
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C. neoformans is a fungus that is rarely if ever found in healthy humans but which can infect the lungs and cause disease in AIDS patients. This organism is considered:

A: Primary pathogen

B: Tertiary Pathogen

C: Obligate pathogen

D: Opportunistic pathogen

E: Non-pathogen

D: Opportunistic pathogen

27
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A Zoonosis is:

A : A disease that is only found in animals

B: A disease that is only acquired at a farm or zoo

C: A disease that is acquired in a hospital

D: A disease that can be spread from animals to humans

E: A disease transmitted by insects

D: A disease that can be spread from animals to humans

28
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Which of the following toxin names refers to the LPS in the gram negative outer membrane

A: Exotoxin

B: Alpha-toxin

C: Endotoxin

D: Protein Toxin

E: Enterotoxin

C: Endotoxin

29
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The number of deaths resulting from a disease in a certain period of time is known as:

A: Frequency

B: Prevalence

C: Mortality

D: Morbidity

E: Resevoir

C: Mortality

30
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A host-to-host epidemic generally exhibits what pattern of incidence in a population

A: Rapid increase followed by rapid decline

B: Rapid increase followed by a very slow decline

C: Slow increase followed by rapid design

D: A slow increase followed by a slow decline

D: A slow increase followed by a slow decline

31
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Lyme disease results from:

A: Growth of Borrelia Burgdorferi in the host body

B: Toxins released when a Borrelia infected tick injects saliva into a host

C: Toxins produced by Borrelia Burgdorferi at the site of a tick bite

D: An autoimmune response to the bite of a borrelia infected tick

A: Growth of Borrelia Burgdorferi in the host body

32
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A disease that exhibits a high incidence in the USA during late summer and fall, and essentially no incidence during the winter, is indicative of:

A: A mosquito borne disease

B: A direct host to host transferred disease

C: A disease transmitted by tree pollen

D: A disease transmitted in ground beef

A: A mosquito borne disease

33
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A disease that is endemic is

A: Spreading rapidly through a local population

B: spreading rapidly through a very large area

C: Unable to be reduced by vaccination

D: Caused by an unidentified pathogen

E: Constantly present at low level within a population

E: Constantly present at low level within a population

34
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Clostridium botulinium and clostridium tetani are examples of

A: Endotoxin

B: Exotoxin

C: Enterotoxins

D: Cytotoxins

B: Exotoxin

35
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The phenomenon of "Herd Immunity" refers to

A: The spread of a live vaccine agent from one animal in a herd to additional animals

B: The passage of immunity from parents to offspring within a herd

C: The protection of unvaccinated individuals in a population due to the vaccination of the majority of the population

D: Extinction of a pathogen due to vaccination of an entire population

C: The protection of unvaccinated individuals in a population due to the vaccination of the majority of the population