POLS 1101: Final Exam Multiple Choice

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114 Terms

1
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A system of checks and balances

gives each branch of the national government some power over the others

2
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For James Madison, the notion that government is necessary depended strongly on:

his belief that people are self-interested and could not be trusted to rule themselves

3
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America predominantly uses which form of democracy?

representative

4
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When group interests conflict with an individual's interests, a(n) ________ occurs?

collective action problem

5
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One of the most important public goods is:

national defense

6
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Free riding tends to compromise:

collective action

7
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A cohesive set of ideas and beliefs used for organizing the political world is a(n):

ideology

8
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In November of 1777, the Continental Congress adopted the United States' first written constitution known as:

Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union

9
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Which part of the national government was formed under the Articles of Confederation?

special panels of judges to resolve disputes between states

10
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A faction is a group of ______that seek to control government power to ______

minority or majority interests; pursue their own interests

11
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The federalists generally:

supported increasing the authority of the national government

12
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For James Madison, the problem associated with a tyranny of the majority was that:

large factions might capture control of the government and ignore the rights of those in the minority

13
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The Anti-Federalists:

all of the above

14
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Despite significant agreement on the need for a ________ national government at the Constitutional Convention, there was serious division about ________.

stronger; how much stronger the federal government should be

15
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Which of the following was NOT a source of significant conflict at the Constitutional Convention?

whether to throw out or amend the Declaration of Independence

16
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Which of the following powers is NOT exclusive to the legislative branch?

the ability to send troops into armed conflict

17
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The three principles that make up the primary framework of the Constitution are:

federalism, separation of powers, and individual rights

18
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Which of the following statements would fall under the principle of coercive federalism?

the national government uses mandates or regulations without giving states the money to execute and enforce the mandates or regulations (unfunded mandates)

19
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A form of government that divides sovereign power across at least two political units is called:

federalism

20
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One advantage of decentralized power in a federal system is that it:

is a natural check on the power of the federal government

21
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The _____ clause is vague but gives the national government a very broad grant of power to carry out its responsibilities

necessary and proper

22
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Why is the supremacy clause important?

it resolves conflicts between national and state laws

23
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The power to levy taxes is considered a

concurrent power

24
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The concept of dual federalism envisions what relationship between the federal and state governments?

each has distinct areas of authority with very little overlap

25
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The commerce clause specifically gives:

congress the power to regulate economic exchange between the states

26
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What element of the Constitution affirms state sovereignty?

the Tenth Amendment

27
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When the Supreme Court makes decisions in civil liberties cases, it frequently weighs the protection of an individual 's freedoms against the public good. In doing this, the Court is:

balancing interests

28
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All of the following describe inclusion of the Bill of Rights in the Constitution EXCEPT:

it was approved at the Constitutional Convention

29
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Which of the following forbids states from denying "life, liberty, or property" without following rules based on the Bill of Rights?

due process clause

30
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Which of the following does NOT describe selective incorporation?

it is determined by state governments

31
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_____, or the use of words to express your feelings or views about the government, is the most protected form of expression.

political speech

32
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Which test said that political speech was protected except where it aimed to cause imminent "lawless action"?

direct incitement test

33
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When it comes to the question of prior restraint on the press, the Supreme Court:

has set a high bar for the government to meet if it wants to restrict the press

34
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Which of the following statements is NOT true about the right to privacy?

is is explicitly guaranteed by the Constitution

35
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While _____ involves limits in government action, _____ involve protection from discrimination by either government or individuals

civil liberties; civil rights

36
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At the end of Reconstruction, which of the following was NOT used to disenfranchise African-American voters in the South?

age requirements

37
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Congress passed the 14th, 15th, and 16th Amendments primarily to:

guarantee civil rights for the newly freed black slaves

38
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Which Supreme Court case validated the type of discrimination established by Jim Crow laws?

Plessy v. Ferguson

39
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The term "affirmative action" refers to:

offering racial minorities chances to catch up through legal means to compensate for discrimination

40
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Public opinion is best defined as

what the public thinks about government and politics

41
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When we describe where someone falls on the conservative-moderate-liberal spectrum, we are referring to their:

ideology

42
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What is a latent opinion?

a view formed on the spot, as needed

43
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Which of the following is true about mass opinion surveys?

They are a powerful tool for measuring public opinion but should be interpreted carefully

44
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A _____ is a subsection of a population chosen to participate in a survey through a selection process in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen.

random sample

45
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A Pew Research Center survey of 1500 randomly selected people, with a sampling error of +/- 3%, showed that 52% of the respondents viewed the military effort in Afghanistan to be going well. Based on this result, what percentage of the population views the military effort in Afghanistan to be going well?

anywhere from 49-55%

46
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Most people's political opinions and ideologies start forming:

during interactions with their parents and families

47
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The contemporary political ideology that is generally defined by support for stronger government programs and more market regulations is most accurately defined as:

liberal

48
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The contemporary political ideology that is generally defined by support for lower taxes, a free market, and a more-limited government is most accurately defined as:

conservative

49
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Once the American and British invasion of Iraq began in March 2003, popular support for US military action rose my 24 points to 77% through what many commentators refer to as:

a "rally around the flag" effect

50
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To be a part of the party in the electorate, one must:

be a citizen who identifies with a political party

51
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the party in government comprises:

those politicians who have been elected into office under a party label

52
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What factor contributed to the transition to our current party system?

Democratic candidates and party leaders, particularly outside the South, came out agains the "separate but equal" system of racial discrimination

53
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Which of the following terms describes a situation in which the issues that divide the political parties change in a way that cuts across existing political coalitions?

realignment

54
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How has the political landscape of the South changed in the last 50 years?

The South has gone from being solidly Democratic to solidly Republican

55
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Duvenger's Law explains which phenomenon in American politics?

The dominance of the two-party system

56
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A vote to select a party's nominee is known as a:

primary election

57
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In modern American politics, most candidates are nominated to elected office through:

primary elections

58
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When one party controls both the legislature and the presidency, it is called:

unified government

59
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When parties decide on their legislative priorities for the year they are engaged in:

agenda setting

60
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What does it mean to be a "representative" democracy?

citizens have an indirect say on policy by voting in elections

61
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When Bob goes to vote, he often thinks about questions like "Has my current member of Congress done a good job?" and "Does my current member of Congress handle issues I care about properly?" This is an example of what kind of evaluation?

retrospective

62
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A voting system in which the candidate with the most votes wins is called:

plurality voting

63
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In Georgia, we use a system of elections where if no one gets more than 50% of the votes, we eliminate everyone but the top two contenders and vote again. This is an example of what kind of election system?

majority with run-off

64
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A multiple-member district system that allows each political party representation in proportion to its percentage of the total vote is a:

proportional representation system

65
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How are presidential primaries different from presidential caucuses?

Primaries involve voting by ballot, whereas caucuses take place in a local meeting

66
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What factor contributed to the transition to our current party system?

Democratic candidates and party leaders, particularly outside the South, came out against the "separate but equal" system of racial discrimination

67
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Individuals donating money directly to federal campaigns is known as ______, whereas money given to an outside group, which cannot be spent in coordination with a federal campaign is known as ______.

hard money; soft money

68
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In America _____ run candidates for office, while _____ do not have an official position on the ballot

political parties; interest groups

69
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Jaime votes for a Democrat for president but a Republican for Senate. This is an example of a(n):

split ticket

70
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When an interest group contacts a public official and tries to influence public policy, it is engaged in:

lobbying

71
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an interest group is best defined as an organization that:

tries to influence public policy for a group of people with common interests

72
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By joining the American Association of Retired Persons (AARP), you receive travel and insurance discounts. These discounts are an example of what?

selective incentives

73
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Why did the Founders believe that the Senate would be more responsive to national interests than the House?

Senators were indirectly elected and served longer terms

74
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Voting based on the trustee model can harm a Congress member's political career because:

it can go against the views of constituents back home

75
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The process of determining the boundaries of House districts every 10 years is known as

redistricting

76
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The process of drawing legislative districts for political advantage is known as:

gerrymandering

77
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The process by which bills are rewritten and amended in a committee us known as:

markup

78
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What is a filibuster?

a senator's attempt to kill a bill by continuing to speak in order to prevent a vote

79
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When a bill comes to the floor of the House under ________, it cannot be amended.

closed rules

80
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Which of the following lists is correctly ordered?

member introduces a bill; one chamber takes floor action; conference committee version is approved

81
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Which of the following is part of the president's job as head of the executive branch?

implementing the law

82
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What is an executive order?

a proclamation made by the president that changes government policy without congressional approval

83
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As commander in chief of the military, the president has the undisputed ability to:

oversee the day-to-day operations of the military

84
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The purpose of the War Powers Resolution is to:

encourage the president to seek congressional approval for large military action

85
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Although presidents can negotiate treaties, they require approval of ________ in order to take effect.

2/3 majority in the Senate

86
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Which of the following is part of the president's constitutional legislative powers?

vetoing legislation

87
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Which of the following describes a situation in which a president uses the media attention given to the president's office to build support for policy proposals?

going public

88
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What is the proper order of succession if the president dies in office or becomes incapacitated?

vice president, speaker of the house

89
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What is "unilateral action"?

a president changing policy without consulting Congress

90
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Which of the following was NOT a source of significant conflict at the Constitutional Convention?

whether to throw out or amend the Declaration of Independence

91
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Which of the following conditions make vetoes more likely?

when there is a divided government

92
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The authors of the textbook conclude that presidential power is:

important but limited by the necessity of working with Congress and of maintaining public approval

93
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Civil servants are employees of the federal government who:

are hired on the basis of their qualifications

94
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Which of the following is the best definition of the bureaucracy?

the group of employees who are responsible for implementing government policy

95
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Government rules that influence the behavior of individuals and groups are known as:

regulations

96
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When members of Congress gather information about the bureaucracy by holding hearings and questioning bureaucrats they are engaged in:

oversight

97
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Which of the following describes a situation in which legislators monitor a bureaucratic organization only after someone complains or a problem of implementation has ben brought to their attention?

fire alarm oversight

98
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Elected officials are challenged in maintaining control over the bureaucracy due to:

the officials' lack of expertise relative to the bureaucrats

99
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What was the principal effect of Marbury v. Madison (1803) on the Supreme Court?

It gave the Court the ability to rule on whether laws violated the Constitution

100
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Which of the following correctly orders courts from lowest to highest?

district courts, appeals courts, Supreme Court