Firefighter 1 State Testing

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100 Terms

1
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Any contact with the public should be used as a(n):

A: Public solicitation opportunity

B: Individual showcasing opportunity

C: Educational opportunity

D: Department showcasing opportunity

C: Educational opportunity

2
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Which of the following concepts dictates that each fire fighter answer to only one supervisor?

A) Span of responsibility

B) Organizational accountability

C) Unity of command

D) Delegation of duty

C) Unity of command

3
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Which of the following national organizations develops U.S. codes and standards dealing with fire protection?

A) EPA

B) NIOSH

C) OSHA

D) NFPA

D) NFPA

4
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Using technology to make buildings and products safer is an example of what type of CRR strategy?

A) Education

B) Engineering

C) Enforcement

D) Economic Incentive

B) Engineering

5
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At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with this specific instrument for communication

A) two-way radio

B) A pager

C) A strobe

D) A whistle

A) two-way radio

6
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What is the first step in the process of response?

A) Checking PPE

B) Mounting apparatus

C) Starting the engine

D) Belting in

A) Checking PPE

7
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When, in the sequence of tasks required at a working structure fire, does controlling the utilities usually occur?

A) Once overhaul is complete

B) Immediately prior to overhaul

C) About half way through the suppression effort

D) It is one of the first tasks to be accomplished

D) It is one of the first tasks to be accomplished

8
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What is one instance in which fire fighters might call the power company to turn off power remotely (such as at a nearby power pole)?

A) If aerial ladders were being used

B) If fatalities were confirmed inside

C) If the building was of Type IV construction

D) If the structure were a parking garage

A) If aerial ladders were being used

9
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What is the purpose of a PASS device?

A) To sound an alarm if certain fire or asphyxiate gases are detected

B) To warn fire fighters when their air supply is low

C) To sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time

D) To keep track of elapsed time in deteriorating conditions

C) To sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time

10
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How much does a full set of personal protective equipment weigh?

A) Thirty pounds

B) Forty pounds

C) Fifty pounds

D) Seventy-five pounds

C) Fifty pounds

11
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During strenuous firefighting, how does the realistic use time of an SCBA compare to its rated use time?

A) The rated time is considerably less.

B) The rated time is somewhat less.

C) The two times are usually very close.

D) The realistic time is about half the rated time.

D) The realistic time is about half the rated time.

12
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When should fire fighters use the purge valve on SCBA?

A) When the tank is near empty

B) When the SCBA cylinder contains air but no air is coming into the mask

C) When the air supply is contaminated

D) When the PASS device is going off

B) When the SCBA cylinder contains air but no air is coming into the mask

13
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What should telecommunicators do if a caller begins shouting or becomes argumentative?

A) Hang up immediately; public safety personnel are not required to receive abuse.

B) Sternly advise the caller to calm down and behave properly.

C) Engage the caller on his/her own terms; often a good exchange of anger relieves the fear and stress of the caller.

D) Remain calm and professional.

D) Remain calm and professional.

14
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What is it called when picking up a particular telephone causes an immediate ring to a particular other phone, with no other choice?

A) direct line

B) A field pack

C) A negotiation set

D) A Phillips phone

A) direct line

15
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A talk-around channel:

A) uses a repeater system.

B) is designed to talk over long distances.

C) uses multiple frequencies.

D) transmits and receives on the same frequency.

D) transmits and receives on the same frequency.

16
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What is the term for the process where a solid, due to heat, breaks down to produce a flammable vapor?

A) Oxidation

B) Combustion

C) Pyrolysis

D) Conflagration

C) Pyrolysis

17
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Which class of fire includes ordinary combustibles such as wood and paper?

A) Class C

B) Type I

C) Class A

D) Type III

C) Class A

18
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Which class of fire involves combustible metals?

A) Class B

B) Class C

C) Class D

D) Class K

C) Class D

19
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In which stage of a fire has all of the available fuel and/or oxygen been consumed and active flaming has decreased or stopped?

A) Isothermic phase

B) Overhaul phase

C) Under control phase

D) Decay phase

D) Decay phase

20
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_____________ is the tendency of gases in an enclosed space to form in layers according to their temperature.

A) Thermal layering

B) Thermal equilibrium

C) Thermal temperance

D) Rollover

A) Thermal layering

21
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What danger is suggested by the observation of smoke puffing in and out of a structure?

A) Impending structural collapse

B) The presence of backdraft conditions

C) Weak structural roofing members

D) Untempered, unreinforced glazing in windows

B) The presence of backdraft conditions

22
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What is the vapor density of air?

A) 0

B) 1

C) 14.7

D) 21.7

B) 1

23
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What is the first step in reading smoke?

A) Determine what is influencing the key attributes.

B) Predict the event.

C) Determine the rate of change.

D) Determine the key attributes of smoke.

D) Determine the key attributes of smoke.

24
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What is the measure of how readily a material will conduct heat?

A) Thermal conductivity

B) Thermal combustibility

C) Thermal connectivity

D) Thermal reducibility

A) Thermal conductivity

25
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What does a CMU contain?

A) Void space

B) Steel reinforcing rods

C) Joinery instructions

D) Explosives

B) Steel reinforcing rods

26
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Select the true statement about steel

A) It is not very strong in either tension or compression.

B) It is very strong in tension only.

C) It is very strong in compression only.

D) It is very strong both in tension and compression.

D) It is very strong both in tension and compression.

27
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What would the observation of glass blocks in a wall tell fire fighters?

A) That there is an automatic sprinkler system in that room

B) That there is a skylight in that room

C) That the wall has not been subjected to fire

D) That the wall should not be load-bearing

D) That the wall should not be load-bearing

28
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Under which conditions, if any, will gypsum burn?

A) It will burn under the same conditions as wood.

B) Only if fanned with room air

C) Only in an atmosphere of pure oxygen

D) It has limited combustibility.

D) It has limited combustibility.

29
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What is the type of construction called that has exterior wall studs continuous from basement to roof?

A) Open-channel

B) Balloon-frame

C) Direct-shaft

D) Vertical-base

B) Balloon-frame

30
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The strength of a truss depends on both its members and the _____________ between them

A) length

B) connections

C) width

D) height

B) connections

31
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What is the finishing material that is a thin concrete surface that can be such used over brick, tile, or wood?

A) Brick veneer

B) Wood siding

C) Stucco

D) Wood shake shingles

C) Stucco

32
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Portable fire extinguishers have two primary uses. What is one?

A) To defuse possible backdraft conditions

B) To reach rollover gases

C) To extinguish incipient fires

D) To provide emergency air

C) To extinguish incipient fires

33
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Which class of fire involves combustible metals?

A) K

B) A

C) B

D) D

D) D

34
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Fire extinguishers are rated for their ability to control a specific type of fire and:

A) ease of use.

B) reach of agent.

C) overall weight.

D) ability to prevent rekindling.

D) ability to prevent rekindling.

35
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When determining what risk classification to assign a certain building area, which two factors contribute?

A) Direction and density of pedestrian traffic flow

B) Elevation and configuration of the given area

C) Volume and pressure capacity of sprinklers

D) Amount and type of combustibles present

D) Amount and type of combustibles present

36
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What is one disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers compared to other extinguishers?

A) Electrical conductivity

B) Expensive chemical inside

C) Short discharge range

D) Messy residue

C) Short discharge range

37
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding fire extinguishers?

A) Maintenance is required if the pressure exceeds 3000 psi.

B) Servicing is not required if it was discharged for less than 5 seconds.

C) 2.5-gallon, stored-pressure extinguishers cannot be recharged by fire fighters.

D) Non-rechargeable extinguishers must be replaced after any use.

D) Non-rechargeable extinguishers must be replaced after any use.

38
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Which tool is used to tighten or loosen hose couplings?

A) Hydrant wrench

B) Box-end wrench

C) Spanner wrench

D) Open-end wrench

C) Spanner wrench

39
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What is the term for a short (two-to-four foot) pike pole designed for use in tight spaces?

A) Closet hook

B) K tool

C) Porta power

D) Baker pole

A) Closet hook

40
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In addition to prying, what can a flat-head axe be used for that a pick-head axe cannot?

A) Ventilating a roof

B) Prying an outward-opening door

C) Striking another tool

D) Prying an inward-opening door

C) Striking another tool

41
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Which type of saw is used for cutting curves in wood?

A) coping saw

B) A carpenter's handsaw

C) A hacksaw

D) A circular saw

A) coping saw

42
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Which body of rules, regulations, or guidelines usually addresses where and how to stage tools at a fire scene?

A) The department's own SOPs

B) The applicable NFPA standard

C) The manufacturer's recommendations

D) The state fire and building codes

A) The department's own SOPs

43
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After cleaning, what is the anti-rust procedure for metal tools?

A) Apply a light coating of benzene.

B) Dry them thoroughly.

C) Coat them with a thin layer of soap.

D) Rub a little dirt onto the metal surfaces.

B) Dry them thoroughly.

44
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How are life safety ropes categorized?

A) For knot or for no knots

B) For rappelling or for steady lowering only

C) For static or dynamic loads

D) For technical or general use

D) For technical or general use

45
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The terms used to describe how a rope reacts to an applied load are dynamic and:

A) vibrant.

B) fixed.

C) static.

D) inert.

C) static.

46
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When hoisting tools, which device should be used to prevent damage to a rope when it must be dragged over rough edges, such as a roof edge?

A) marlin spike

B) A hose tool

C) An edge protector

D) A bolster

C) An edge protector

47
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What must usually be done with a life safety rope that can no longer be used?

A) It must be relegated to personal escape rope.

B) It must be returned to the manufacturer.

C) It must be destroyed or downgraded.

D) It must be repaired.

C) It must be destroyed or downgraded.

48
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What is formed by reversing the direction of a rope to form a "U" bend with two parallel ends?

A) splice

B) A cord

C) A plait

D) A bight

D) A bight

49
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In which position should an axe be raised?

A) Head down

B) Head up

C) Horizontal

D) Wrapped

A) Head down

50
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Fire escape rope is to be used in which of the following circumstances?

A) Emergency self-rescue from an immediately hazardous environment

B) Life safety rescues involving two persons

C) Water rescues involving multiple individuals

D) Hoisting and lifting tools

A) Emergency self-rescue from an immediately hazardous environment

51
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Before beginning any forcible entry, which reminder phrase should fire fighters keep in mind?

A) Two's company, three's a crew.

B) Without the hose, the fire grows.

C) Try before you pry.

D) Break a door, hit the floor.

C) Try before you pry.

52
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What happens if the wrong tool is used on case-hardened steel?

A) The metal can be cut through much faster than anticipated, resulting in personal injury.

B) The tool can break and people can be injured.

C) The metal can ignite or the powder dust from the cutting can explode.

D) Nothing happens, but time is wasted.

B) The tool can break and people can be injured.

53
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Where should a fire fighter stand when breaking windows during forcible entry?

A) Windward side of the window with the hands below the break

B) Windward side of the window with the hands above the break

C) Leeward side of the window with the hands below the break

D) Leeward side of the window with the hands above the break

B) Windward side of the window with the hands above the break

54
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What is the term used to describe the crosspiece that spans the two beams of a ladder?

A) Dawg

B) Block

C) Rung

D) Rail

C) Rung

55
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What does a heat sensor label do on a ladder?

A) It reports the highest temperature in which the ladder can be safely used.

B) It changes color when exposed to a specific degree of heat.

C) It attests to the heat treatment the ladder underwent during construction.

D) It reports what the ambient temperature currently is.

B) It changes color when exposed to a specific degree of heat.

56
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Which NFPA standard sets the minimum performance standards for apparatus referred to as either "aerial ladders" or "elevating platforms"?

A) 1868

B) 1900

C) 1901

D) 1932

C) 1901

57
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Which parts of ground ladders can be painted for visibility and identification?

A) Rungs

B) Pawls

C) Bottom half

D) Top and bottom 18 inches

D) Top and bottom 18 inches

58
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How are the fire fighters arranged in the three-fire fighter flat ladder carry?

A) All three fire fighters are on the same side of the ladder.

B) The front and middle person are on the left side, and the rear person is on the right.

C) The front and rear person are on one side, and the middle person is on the other.

D) The front and middle person are on the right side, and the rear person is on the left.

C) The front and rear person are on one side, and the middle person is on the other.

59
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Which type of ladder raise is usually used when the ladder can be raised perpendicular to the target surface?

A) hand raise

B) A periscope raise

C) A drawbridge raise

D) A flat raise

D) A flat raise

60
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During a search, spindle-style furniture legs might indicate what type of furniture?

A) Crib

B) Couch

C) Bunk bed

D) Reclining chair

A) Crib

61
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Which condition is the victim in when the exit assist is appropriate?

A) Unresponsive and unable to walk

B) Unresponsive but able to walk

C) Responsive but unable to walk

D) Responsive and able to walk

D) Responsive and able to walk

62
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Where does the victim's arm go in the one-person walking assist?

A) Around the rescuer's waist

B) Linked in the rescuer's arm

C) Around the rescuer's neck

D) Across the victim's chest

C) Around the rescuer's neck

63
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A thorough size-up of each fire is important to develop a plan for rescue, fire suppression, and:

A) transitional fire attack.

B) exposure protection.

C) overhaul.

D) ventilation.

D) ventilation.

64
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When considering the various types of ventilation, the easiest type to use is:

A) doors.

B) windows.

C) skylights.

D) the roof.

A) doors.

65
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What is the term for the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building?

A) Roof chase

B) Cockloft

C) Head space

D) Mantle

B) Cockloft

66
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Modern wood-frame construction uses a technique that builds one floor at a time and inserts a plate between each floor that acts as a fire stop. What is this technique called?

A) Flitch-plate

B) Platform-frame

C) Balustrade

D) Awning

B) Platform-frame

67
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Which type of ventilation is it that involves openings in roofs or floors so that heat, smoke, and toxic gases escape the structure in a vertical direction?

A) Horizontal

B) Mechanical

C) Vertical

D) Negative-pressure

C) Vertical

68
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When ventilating a structure, where should a ladder be placed when breaking a window?

A) Above the windowsill

B) Below the windowsill

C) Downside side of the window

D) Upwind side of the window

D) Upwind side of the window

69
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What is it called if air is immediately drawn back into the building because of an incompletely sealed smoke ejector?

A) Secondary convection

B) Paradoxical ventilation

C) Churning

D) Recirculation

D) Recirculation

70
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Portable tanks typically hold between:

A) 100 and 1500 gallons of water.

B) 500 and 2000 gallons of water.

C) 600 and 5000 gallons of water.

D) 1000 and 10,000 gallons of water.

C) 600 and 5000 gallons of water.

71
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What is the usual range of pressure, in psi, at the delivery point in a water system?

A) 50-55

B) 40-60

C) 20-80

D) 10-90

C) 20-80

72
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When color-coding fire hydrants, which color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing 500-999 gpm?

A) Red

B) Orange

C) Green

D) Light blue

B) Orange

73
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When color-coding fire hydrants, which color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing 1500 gpm and higher?

A) Red

B) Orange

C) Green

D) Light blue

D) Light blue

74
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When water is not moving, which kind of energy, if any, does it have?

A) Residual

B) Pent-up

C) Potential

D) Stagnant

C) Potential

75
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Which term is used to describe the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow as related to fire suppression?

A) Fluid dynamics

B) Friction Loss

C) Fire Hydraulics

D) Flow Pressure

C) Fire Hydraulics

76
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What are the wrenches called that are used to tighten and loosen hose couplings?

A) Hydrant wrenches

B) The irons

C) Hose tools

D) Spanner wrenches

D) Spanner wrenches

77
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Which tool is sometimes used to tighten hard suction hose connections?

A) rubber mallet

B) A dead-bounce maul

C) A come along

D) A turnbuckle

A) rubber mallet

78
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On which floor should attack lines be connected when connecting to a standpipe system?

A) Floor below fire floor

B) Floor above fire floor

C) On the fire floor

D) Bottom floor

A) Floor below fire floor

79
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What is the hose lay called in which the hose is laid out from the fire to the hydrant, rather than from the hydrant to the fire?

A) synchronized lay

B) A defensive lay

C) A reverse lay

D) A forward (straight) lay

C) A reverse lay

80
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In what manner should attack lines be loaded into the hose bed?

A) That which provides the maximum length of hose

B) That which ensures they can be quickly stretched to the fire

C) That which is easiest for firefighters to load

D) That which is the preference for the driver/engineer

B) That which ensures they can be quickly stretched to the fire

81
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Experiments have shown that a transitional fire attack slowed the growth of a fire by:

A) limiting the amount of air that reaches the fire.

B) cooling huge quantities of gases and fuels below their ignition temperature.

C) sufficiently soaking the combustible materials.

D) pushing large quantities of smoke and gases toward the ventilation openings.

B) cooling huge quantities of gases and fuels below their ignition temperature.

82
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How much water can large handlines flow, in gallons per minute?

A) 250 or more

B) About 175

C) 140 to 150

D) Exactly 125

A) 250 or more

83
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What is the largest flow in gallons per minute that a master stream device can generate?

A) 1000

B) About 1400

C) 2000 or more

D) 10,000 or more

C) 2000 or more

84
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In a direct fire attack, water should be applied until:

A) the flames start to decrease.

B) there is sufficient steam conversion.

C) the burning material is cool to the touch.

D) flame is no longer visible.

D) flame is no longer visible.

85
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An indirect attack is indicated when the temperature is increasing and it appears that ______ is about to happen.

A) backdraft

B) structural collapse

C) rollaway

D) flashover

C) rollaway

86
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Under which circumstances should master stream devices be directed into buildings where fire fighters are operating inside?

A) Only when the whereabouts of every person inside is known to the master stream operator

B) Only when the fire is clearly getting the better of the inside crew

C) Under no circumstances

D) Under any circumstances

C) Under no circumstances

87
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What is the most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations?

A) Chain of command

B) Span of control

C) Safety of personnel

D) Unity of command

C) Safety of personnel

88
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What does the R stand for in PAR?

A) Relief

B) Report

C) Reassignment

D) Role

B) Report

89
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Which of the following communications takes precedence over all other communications?

A) Emergency traffic

B) Mayday

C) Vehicle assignments

D) Personnel assignments

B) Mayday

90
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What is one basic method for staying oriented inside a low-visibility environment?

A) Staying in contact with the hose line

B) Staying in contact with a partner

C) Sounding the floor periodically with an axe

D) Counting paces or crawl movements

A) Staying in contact with the hose line

91
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What is the name of the device that interrupts the current when there is a problem with an electrical ground?

A) GRI

B) ECI

C) GCI

D) GFI

D) GFI

92
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When entering a fire building, who on the team should have a battery-powered hand light?

A) All team members

B) Company officer

C) Nozzle operator

D) Company officer and nozzle operator

A) All team members

93
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What will happen to the flow of water from activated sprinkler heads once the sprinkler control valve is turned off?

A) An alarming groaning sound will be heard through the pipes.

B) The flow will stop immediately with no groaning sound.

C) Water will continue to drain for several minutes.

D) The water will slurp up and then jet out once or twice.

C) Water will continue to drain for several minutes.

94
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What is one limitation of backpack water vacuums?

A) They cannot pull water up from the floor.

B) They cannot be worn with SCBA.

C) They can only be used once.

D) They are illegal in many places.

B) They cannot be worn with SCBA.

95
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For which application might it be preferable to use long rolls of construction-grade polyethylene film instead of salvage covers?

A) gathering of furniture in the middle of the room

B) A long retail display counter

C) A twenty-gallon fish tank

D) A vertical surface

B) A long retail display counter

96
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To what does a thermal imaging device respond?

A) Movement

B) Differences in temperature

C) The presence of bioactive material

D) The absence of heat

B) Differences in temperature

97
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Where is the rehabilitation center, usually, at a high-rise fire?

A) In an uninvolved section of the fire floor

B) Two or three floors below the fire

C) In the lobby of the fire building

D) Outside the fire building

B) Two or three floors below the fire

98
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What is the term for that condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95ºF?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hypothermia

C) Hyperactivity

D) Hyperthermia

B) Hypothermia

99
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What is the traveling edge of a wildland fire called?

A) The foot of the fire

B) The face of the fire

C) The head of the fire

D) The step of the fire

C) The head of the fire

100
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Why is a pocket dangerous for fire fighters?

A) Because of the running water that defines it

B) Because nothing can survive in a pocket, even with protection

C) Because there is no air there

D) Because it is an unburned area surrounded on three sides by fire

D) Because it is an unburned area surrounded on three sides by fire