IS LYME DISEASE - HELICOBACTER PYLORI

What is the clinical hallmark of Lyme disease?

Erythema migrans (EM)

What bacterium causes Lyme disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

Which tick serves as the vector for Lyme disease?

Ixodes scapularis tick

What type of diseases are febrile diseases?

Diseases that can cause high fever.

What defines a vector-borne disease?

A disease that needs a vehicle (vector) to transfer the infection.

What is Streptococcus pyogenes known to cause?

Upper respiratory tract infections (pharyngitis), necrotizing fasciitis, streptococcal TSS, scalded skin syndrome, streptococcal pyoderma (impetigo), scarlet fever, and erysipelas.

What is one of the most important sequelae of Group A Streptococcus infection?

Acute Rheumatic fever.

What is another important complication following a Group A Streptococcus infection?

Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis.

What is another name for necrotizing fasciitis caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

Flesh eating bacteria.

What is Lipoteichoic Acid's role in Streptococcus pyogenes?

It adheres to epithelial cells.

What is Protein F's role in Streptococcus pyogenes?

It adheres to epithelial cells.

What are M Proteins and their significance in Streptococcus pyogenes infections?

They are anti-phagocytic proteins that mimic proteins on the heart valve, important in serology, and can cause Acute Rheumatic Fever by clinging to the heart and triggering an immune attack.

What extracellular products are produced by Streptococcus pyogenes?

Hemolysins (Streptolysin O and S), Hyaluronidase, DNAse, Streptokinase, and Erythrogenic toxin.

What is the effect of Erythrogenic toxin and its associated condition?

It can cause Scarlet Fever, characterized by a strawberry red or scarlet red tongue.

How do Streptolysin O and Streptolysin S differ?

Streptolysin O is labile, while Streptolysin S is stable.

What is the effect of Erythrogenic toxin and its associated condition?

It can cause Scarlet Fever, characterized by a strawberry red or scarlet red tongue.

What bacteria causes Scarlet Fever?

Scarlet Fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

What color does the tongue become in Scarlet Fever?

The tongue appears strawberry red or scarlet red.

What is rheumatic fever and when does it develop?

Rheumatic fever develops as a sequela to pharyngitis or tonsillitis in 2 to 3 percent of infected individuals.

What is the typical period for the onset of rheumatic fever after a sore throat?

The typical period is 1 to 3 weeks after onset of the sore throat.

What are the characteristic features of acute rheumatic fever?

Characteristic features include fever, inflammation in the joints, and inflammation of the heart.

What is glomerulonephritis?

Damage to kidney glomeruli due to Ab-streptococcal immune complexes.

What is the function of the glomeruli?

Filter blood.

What happens to antibodies against the M protein in glomerulonephritis?

They accumulate in the glomeruli, causing immune attack.

What is the heart's role regarding the kidneys?

Pumps blood to be filtered by the kidneys.

How many tubes should be prepared for the assay?

14 tubes.

What is the purpose of Tube 13 in the assay?

Tube 13 is the RBC control (no hemolysis) and serves as a positive control.

What is the purpose of Tube 14 in the assay?

Tube 14 is the SLO control (hemolysis) and serves as a negative control.

What is the serum dilution ratio for the assay?

0.5mL of serum + 4.5mL of diluent.

What is considered a normal result in Todd units?

A titer of 166 Todd units or below.

What is considered a moderately elevated result for adults in Todd units?

A titer of 240 Todd units.

What is considered a moderately elevated result for children in Todd units?

A titer of 320 Todd units.

What method is utilized in ASO Latex Agglutination?

The Passive agglutination method.

What is the normal value (NV) for ASO in IU/mL?

<200 IU/mL.

What is the principle of the Antistreptolysin O Test (ASO)?

The ASO test is based on the neutralization of the hemolytic activity of streptolysin O.

What indicates a positive result in the ASO test?

A positive result is indicated by NO HEMOLYSIS.

What indicates a negative result in the ASO test?

A negative result is indicated by hemolysis.

What does hemolysis with a dirty purple coloration indicate in the ASO test?

It indicates colored lysis by the toxin.

What does 'vin rose' or red lysis by complement signify in the ASO test?

It signifies that the hemolysis is due to complement activation.

What is the principle of the Anti-DNAse B test?

The test is based on the neutralization of reagent DNASE B by Anti-DNAse B antibodies.

What indicates a positive result in the Anti-DNAse B test?

A positive result is indicated by a green complex, meaning the intact DNA-methyl green conjugate due to no hydrolysis.

What indicates a negative result in the Anti-DNAse B test?

A negative result is indicated by the hydrolysis of the green conjugate to a colorless solution.

What does the presence of Anti-DNAse B antibodies suggest?

The presence of Anti-DNAse B antibodies suggests a previous infection with Group A Streptococcus.

What is the Streptozyme Testing used for?

It is a slide agglutination screening test for the detection of antibodies to several streptococcal antigens.

What components are used in the Streptozyme test?

The test uses sheep red blood cells coated with streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and NADase.

What indicates a positive result in the Streptozyme test?

A positive test is indicated by hemagglutination.

What type of bacteria are Rickettsial organisms?

Rickettsial organisms are gram-negative bacteria, specifically coccobacilli.

What is the mode of transmission for Rickettsial infections?

Rickettsial infections are primarily transmitted through arthropod or vector-borne infections.

Who are the accidental hosts for Rickettsial organisms?

Humans are considered accidental hosts for Rickettsial organisms.

What disease is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii?

Rickettsia prowazekii causes Epidemic typhus and Brill-Zinsser disease.

What disease is associated with Rickettsia typhi?

Rickettsia typhi is known to cause Murine typhus.

What is the name of the disease caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi?

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi causes Scrub typhus.

What condition is linked to Rickettsia rickettsii?

Rickettsia rickettsii is responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

What does Rickettsia akari cause?

Rickettsia akari causes Rickettsial pox.

What is the previous name of Bartonella quintana?

Bartonella quintana was formerly known as Rochalimaea.

What disease is caused by Bartonella quintana?

Bartonella quintana causes Trench fever.

What type of disease does Coxiella burnetii cause?

Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever

What is the Weil-Felix test used for?

The Weil-Felix test is a serological test for differential diagnosis of rickettsial infections based on the cross-reactivity of heterophile antibodies.

What triggers the production of heterophile antibodies in the Weil-Felix test?

Heterophile antibodies are produced in response to rickettsial infections.

Which strains of Proteus are used in the Weil-Felix test?

The strains used are Proteus vulgaris (OX-19 and OX-2) and Proteus mirabilis (OX-K strain).

What are heterophile antibodies?

Heterophile antibodies are antibodies that can react with antigens of a similar plant or species.

What is the causative agent of Typhoid Fever?

Salmonella typhi.

How is Typhoid Fever transmitted?

Through food and drinks contaminated by fecal matter (oral-fecal route).

Who was Typhoid Mary?

Typhoid Mary, also known as Mary Mallon, was a cook in the US who infected 22 people, three of whom died, during a typhoid epidemic.

What is the significance of asymptomatic carriers in Typhoid Fever?

Asymptomatic carriers, like Typhoid Mary, harbor the bacteria without showing symptoms, leading to potential outbreaks.

What is another disease caused by Salmonella species?

Salmonellosis, specifically caused by Salmonella enteritidis.

Where does Salmonella typhi remain dormant in asymptomatic carriers?

In the gallbladder after recovery from the

What is the O Antigen in Salmonella?

The O Antigen, also known as the Somatic antigen, is a heat-stable polysaccharide and acts as an endotoxin.

What is the H Antigen in Salmonella?

The H Antigen, also known as Flagellar Antigen, is a protein that is heat labile.

What is the significance of the Vi Antigen in Salmonella?

The Vi Antigen, known as the Capsular Antigen, is associated with virulent strains and indicates a carrier state.

What is the gold standard for laboratory tests in diagnosing bacterial infections?

Bacterial Culture, with blood culture being the best.

What are the serologic tests used for typhoid fever?

1. Widal 2. Typhidot 3. Tubex

What is the principle of the Widal test?

Direct Agglutination Test.

What is the antigen preparation for the Widal test?

O Antigen is prepared with heat or alcohol (phenol) and H Antigen with formalin (heat labile).

What does the Typhidot test detect?

It detects serum antibody to an antigen dotted on a nitrocellulose membrane.

What is another name for the Typhidot test?

Dot Enzyme Immunoassay.

What do the results of IgM and IgG indicate in the context of typhoid fever?

IgM indicates acute typhoid fever. IgG can indicate previous successful treatment, reinfection, carrier status, or recovery.

What does it mean if both IgM and IgG are present in the test results?

It indicates an acute infection in transition to being a chronic infection, sometimes in a recovery phase.

What type of bacteria is Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae is an extracellular bacteria.

What is the preferred method for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?

The preferred method for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections is serologic testing.

What condition is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes Primary Atypical Pneumonia (PAP), also known as walking pneumonia.

How does walking pneumonia differ from other types of pneumonia?

Patients with walking pneumonia can still perform day-to-day functions, unlike pneumonia caused by bacteria such as Klebsiella pneumoniae, which typically requires hospitalization.

What is the mode of transmission for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

The mode of transmission for Mycoplasma pneumoniae is through respiratory secretions.

What is a notable immunologic feature associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

Cold agglutinins are a notable immunologic feature associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection.

What type of antibodies are cold agglutinins?

Cold agglutinins are IgM antibodies.

What do cold agglutinins develop in response to?

Cold agglutinins develop in individuals infected with Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

What is the autoimmune characteristic of cold agglutinins related to Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Cold agglutinins are an example of auto anti-I antibodies that can be present in Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections.

What disease does Brucella cause?

Brucella causes brucellosis.

What type of disease is brucellosis?

Brucellosis is a zoonotic disease caused by gram-negative bacteria.

What is the mode of transmission for Brucella?

Brucella is transmitted through farm animals and the consumption of milk from infected animals.

What is the most reliable serological method for diagnosing brucellosis?

Agglutination methods are the most reliable indicator.

What is the Castaneda strip test used for in diagnosing brucellosis?

The Castaneda strip test is a surface fixation method performed on filter paper with Brucella antigen.

How does the Castaneda strip test indicate the presence of antibodies?

If the patient's antibodies are present, the serum will not flow on the test strip.

What medium is used in the Castaneda test?

Castaneda medium is used in the test.

What type of pathogens are Brucella bacteria classified as?

Brucella bacteria are classified as gram-negative.

What are serological methods used for in relation to Brucella?

Serological methods are used for diagnosing brucellosis.