Exam 1 ICT 377

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92 Terms

1
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Which of the following best defines a network protocol?

A) A hardware component that connects devices
B) The layout of cables and connections
C) A set of rules for data communication
D) A method of assigning IP addresses

C. A protocol defines the rules for communication between devices in a network.

2
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Which topology connects all devices to a central hub or switch?

A) Bus
B) Star
C) Mesh
D) Ring

Star

3
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Which topology provides redundancy and fault tolerance but is expensive to implement?

A) Mesh
B) Bus
C) Star
D) Ring

Mesh

4
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What does “deterministic” mean in a Token Ring network?
A) Devices access the network randomly
B) Devices gain control of the network at fixed intervals
C) Data flows one way around the ring
D) The network can detect errors automatically

B. Token-passing networks are deterministic because each device gets access in turn.

5
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Which OSI layer is responsible for physical connections and electrical signals?

A) Network
B) Data Link
C) Physical
D) Transport

Physical

6
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Which OSI layer handles error detection and defines MAC addresses?

A) Session
B) Data Link
C) Network
D) Presentation

Data Link

7
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Which protocol operates at the network layer of the OSI model?
A) Ethernet
B) IP
C) UDP
D) TCP

IP (Internet Protocol) functions at the network layer and handles logical addressing.

8
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hat is the main purpose of the transport layer in the OSI model?
A) Physical addressing
B) Routing
C) Reliable data transfer
D) Application communication

C. The transport layer ensures reliable communication using protocols like TCP and UDP.

9
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Which layer of the OSI model provides data compression and encryption?
A) Presentation
B) Session
C) Application
D) Network

The presentation layer formats, encrypts, and compresses data for applications.

10
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A user can’t access an email server. The technician pings the server’s IP address and gets “Request timed out.” What layer should be checked first?

A) Layer 3
B) Layer 4
C) Layer 1
D) Layer 7

Layer 1

11
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Which Ethernet term describes “Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection”?
A) CSMA/CD
B) CDMA
C) TCP/IP
D) ARP

Ethernet uses CSMA/CD to detect collisions on the network and manage data transmission.

12
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What part of an Ethernet frame indicates where the packet is going?
A) Preamble

B) Start Frame Delimiter
C) Destination MAC Address
D) Frame Check Sequence

The destination MAC address

13
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The MAC address is divided into two parts: the OUI and the ____.
A) Device Serial Number
B) Node Identifier
C) Host ID
D) Vendor Code

B.The MAC address’s last six hexadecimal digits represent the device’s unique Node ID.

14
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Which layer of the OSI model would a switch operate primarily at?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 3
D) Layer 4

Switches operate mainly at the data link layer (Layer 2), using MAC addresses.

15
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Which layer of the OSI model would a router operate at?
A) Layer 2
B) Layer 3
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 7

Routers make forwarding decisions based on Layer 3 (network) IP addresses.

16
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Which command can a network administrator use to test Layer 3 connectivity?
A) ipconfig
B) ping
C) tracert
D) both B and C

D) both B and C

17
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In troubleshooting, which question best aligns with checking Layer 7 of the OSI model?

A) Is the cable connected?
B) Is the network down?
C) Is the web service responding?
D) Is there an IP address conflict?

C

18
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What is the primary purpose of the Physical Layer in networking?
A) Assign IP addresses
B) Provide logical addressing
C) Define the media and transmission method
D) Manage encryption and compression

C.The Physical Layer defines how bits are transmitted over the medium — including cables, voltages, and connectors.

19
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Which organization developed the 568 cabling standards?
A) IEEE
B) ISO
C) EIA/TIA
D) IETF

The Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) and Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)

20
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The TIA/EIA-568 standard specifies what type of system?
A) Optical switching
B) Structured cabling
C) TCP/IP addressing
D) Network security

TIA/EIA-568 defines guidelines for structured cabling within and between buildings.

21
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What is the function of the Equipment Room in structured cabling?

A) Houses all workstations
B) Contains servers and networking hardware
C) Connects patch cords to end-user devices
D) Distributes power to the LAN

B

22
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In the structured cabling model, what connects different floors or buildings?
A) Backbone cabling
B) Horizontal cabling
C) Patch cords
D) Cross-connect

Backbone cabling

23
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Which subsystem connects a workstation to the telecommunications closet?
A) Equipment room
B) Backbone cabling
C) Horizontal cabling
D) Entrance facility

Horizontal cabling

24
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The point where external cables enter a building is called the:

A) Work area
B) Main distribution frame
C) Building entrance (Entrance Facility)
D) Cross-connect

The Entrance Facility (EF)

25
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The three sections of the EIA/TIA-568-B standard are:
A) Network, Wireless, Fiber
B) Twisted Pair, Fiber, Coax
C) Commercial Cabling, Twisted Pair Media, Optical Fiber Cabling
D) Residential, Campus, and WAN

Commercial Cabling, Twisted Pair Media, Optical Fiber Cabling

26
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Which of the following is not one of the six subsystems in structured cabling?
A) Horizontal Cabling
B) Equipment Room
C) Patch Panel
D) Work Area

Patch Panel

27
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What type of connector is used on CAT5e or CAT6 cables?
A) RJ-11
B) RJ-45
C) BNC
D) SC

RJ-45

28
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Which of the following twisted-pair categories supports up to 10 Gbps?

A) CAT5e
B) CAT6
C) CAT6A
D) CAT3

CAT6A

29
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In twisted-pair cable, what does the term balanced mode of operation mean?
A) Both wires carry opposite signal phases relative to a virtual ground
B) One wire is grounded
C) The wires are shielded
D) Signal flow alternates between wires randomly

Both wires carry opposite signal phases relative to a virtual ground

30
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What is the maximum segment length for standard Ethernet over UTP?
A) 50 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 250 meters
D) 500 meters

100 meters

31
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What is the main advantage of twisted-pair cabling over coaxial cable?
A) Greater noise immunity
B) Lower cost and easier installation
C) Higher bandwidth
D) Longer transmission range

Lower cost and easier installation

32
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When connecting two computers directly with UTP, what type of cable is required?

A crossover cable swaps the transmit and receive pairs for direct device-to-device communication.

33
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A LAN technician uses a wiremap test. What is being verified?
A) Cable color codes
B) Pair integrity and correct pin connections
C) Network throughput
D) Signal reflection

Pair integrity and correct pin connections

34
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Which of the following are common causes of UTP signal loss? (Select all that apply)
A) Cable length exceeds 100 meters
B) Improper cable bends or kinks
C) Using shielded cable outdoors
D) Excessive untwisting at connectors

A, B, D

35
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What is the main advantage of fiber-optic cabling compared to copper cabling?
A) Easier installation
B) Lower cost
C) Higher bandwidth and longer distance transmission
D) Simpler termination process

Higher bandwidth and longer distance transmission

36
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What type of signal does fiber-optic cable transmit?
A) Electrical current
B) Magnetic pulses
C) Light signals
D) Radio waves

Light signals

37
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The core of an optical fiber is typically made of:
A) Copper
B) Plastic
C) Glass doped with germanium or boron
D) Aluminum

Glass doped with germanium or boron

38
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What surrounds the core and reflects light back into it?
A) Jacket
B) Cladding
C) Coating
D) Buffer

Cladding

39
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The outer layer of a fiber-optic cable that provides physical protection is called the:
A) Jacket
B) Coating
C) Sleeve
D) Sheath

Jacket

40
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What is the typical wavelength range used for modern optical fiber systems?
A) 100–300 nm
B) 430–680 nm
C) 750–1550 nm
D) 2000–3000 nm

750–1550 nm

41
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What device converts the light signal into an electrical signal at the receiving end?
A) Transmitter
B) Optical coupler
C) Photodiode or photodetector
D) LED

Photodiode or photodetector

42
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Which of the following best defines attenuation in optical fiber?
A) Reflection of light inside the fiber
B) Bending of light as it changes mediums
C) Signal loss over distance
D) Increase in bandwidth

Signal loss over distance

43
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What is the main cause of dispersion in fiber optics?
A) Bending too sharply
B) Using mismatched connectors
C) Different light modes arriving at different times
D) Signal interference from nearby cables

Different light modes arriving at different times

44
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The term numerical aperture (NA) of a fiber defines:
A) The refractive index difference between core and cladding
B) The strength of the protective jacket
C) The distance light can travel before loss
D) The wavelength range supported

The refractive index difference between core and cladding

45
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Which statement correctly compares multimode and single-mode fiber?
A) Multimode uses lasers; single-mode uses LEDs
B) Multimode is used for long distances
C) Single-mode supports higher bandwidth and less dispersion
D) Both operate only at 2.4 GHz

Single-mode supports higher bandwidth and less dispersion

46
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What does WLAN stand for?
A) Wide Local Area Network
B) Wireless Local Area Network
C) Wired Local Area Network
D) Wireless Line Access Network

Wireless Local Area Network

47
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Which IEEE standard defines wireless LAN technology?
A) 802.3
B) 802.5
C) 802.11
D) 802.15

802.11

48
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What is a key advantage of using wireless networks in the workplace?
A) Lower security risks
B) Reduced installation costs and increased mobility
C) Elimination of interference
D) Guaranteed higher speed than wired

Reduced installation costs and increased mobility

49
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Which IEEE standard operates in the 2.4 GHz band and supports speeds up to 11 Mbps?
A) 802.11a
B) 802.11b
C) 802.11g
D) 802.11n

802.11b

50
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Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHz frequency range?
A) 802.11b
B) 802.11a
C) 802.11g
D) 802.11b/g

802.11a

51
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What is a key benefit of 802.11g over 802.11b?
A) Uses 5 GHz band
B) Higher data rates (up to 54 Mbps) while maintaining backward compatibility
C) Operates only with fiber optic connections
D) Requires new access points only

Higher data rates (up to 54 Mbps) while maintaining backward compatibility

52
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The technology that directs wireless signals to a specific device to improve efficiency is called:
A) Multiplexing
B) Beamforming
C) Spanning
D) Frequency Hopping

Beamforming

53
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The 802.11ac standard operates in which frequency band?
A) 900 MHz
B) 2.4 GHz
C) 5 GHz
D) Dual-band (2.4 and 5 GHz)

5 GHz

54
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What is the function of an access point (AP) in a WLAN?
A) Encrypts user data
B) Converts digital data to analog
C) Bridges wireless clients to the wired network
D) Routes data between subnets

Bridges wireless clients to the wired network

55
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Which of the following technologies is associated with short-range personal area networking?
A) WiMAX
B) Bluetooth
C) RFID
D) LTE

Bluetooth

56
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What does TCP/IP stand for?
A) Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol
B) Transfer Communication Protocol / Internal Path
C) Transport Communication Program / Internet Protocol
D) Transmit Control Platform / Interface Protocol

Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol

57
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The TCP/IP model has how many layers?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7

The TCP/IP model has four layers: Application, Transport, Internet, and Network Interface

58
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Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for routing and addressing?
A) Network Interface
B) Internet Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Application Layer

Internet Layer

59
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The Application Layer of TCP/IP corresponds to which OSI layers?
A) Layers 1–2
B) Layers 3–4
C) Layers 5–7
D) Layers 2–4

Layers 5–7

60
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Which two protocols operate at the Transport Layer of TCP/IP?
A) HTTP and FTP
B) TCP and UDP
C) IP and ARP
D) ICMP and DNS

TCP and UDP

61
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Which of the following correctly lists the three-way TCP handshake process?
A) SYN, ACK, SYN-ACK
B) SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK
C) ACK, SYN, FIN
D) FIN, ACK, CLOSE

SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK

62
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What is the function of UDP compared to TCP?
A) Provides error correction
B) Provides guaranteed delivery
C) Sends data faster without connection setup
D) Requires three-way handshake

Sends data faster without connection setup

63
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Port 80 is associated with which service?
A) HTTPS
B) DNS
C) HTTP
D) FTP

HTTP

64
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Which command can verify Layer 3 connectivity using ICMP packets?
A) netstat
B) ping
C) ipconfig
D) nslookup

ping

65
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Which layer of TCP/IP handles IP addressing and routing?
A) Application
B) Internet
C) Transport
D) Network Interface

The Internet layer (Layer 2 in TCP/IP)

66
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What is the primary difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
A) IPv6 uses 32 bits; IPv4 uses 64 bits
B) IPv4 uses 32 bits; IPv6 uses 128 bits
C) IPv4 supports encryption; IPv6 does not
D) IPv6 supports fewer hosts than IPv4

IPv4 uses 32 bits; IPv6 uses 128 bits

67
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What is the function of a subnet mask?
A) Determines the physical layout of a network
B) Identifies the network and host portions of an IP address
C) Controls broadcast traffic
D) Translates domain names to IP addresses

Identifies the network and host portions of an IP address

68
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What is the role of a default gateway in a network?
A) It assigns IP addresses to hosts
B) It manages internal file sharing
C) It forwards packets to other networks
D) It secures wireless connections

It forwards packets to other networks

69
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Which protocol is responsible for translating domain names to IP addresses?

A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) ICMP
D) ARP

DNS

70
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What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
A) Maps IP addresses to MAC addresses
B) Maps MAC addresses to IP addresses
C) Tests TCP connectivity
D) Assigns static IPs to clients

Maps IP addresses to MAC addresses

71
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What is the main advantage of using VLANs in a network?
A) They increase cable bandwidth
B) They reduce broadcast domains and improve security
C) They automatically configure IP addresses
D) They replace routers in all networks

They reduce broadcast domains and improve security

72
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Which VLAN type assigns ports manually to VLANs?
A) Dynamic VLAN
B) Static VLAN
C) Protocol-based VLAN
D) Tag-based VLAN

Static VLAN

73
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What identifies a frame as belonging to a particular VLAN in a tag-based VLAN?
A) IP header
B) VLAN ID
C) Port number
D) MAC address

VLAN ID

74
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Which IEEE standard defines VLAN tagging?
A) 802.3
B) 802.5
C) 802.1Q
D) 802.11

802.1Q

75
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A switch port configured for multiple VLANs is called a:
A) Access port
B) Trunk port
C) Hybrid port
D) Default port

Trunk port

76
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A trunk port carries traffic for ______ across switches

multiple VLAN’s

77
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hich VLAN type uses a computer’s MAC address or username for assignment?
A) Static VLAN
B) Dynamic VLAN
C) Tag-based VLAN
D) Default VLAN

Dynamic VLAN

78
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What is the default VLAN on most Cisco switches?
A) VLAN 0
B) VLAN 1
C) VLAN 99
D) VLAN 10

VLAN 1

79
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What command gives a user access to privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco switch?

A) enable
B) configure terminal
C) show running-config
D) login

enable

80
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After entering privileged mode, which command puts the administrator into global configuration mode?
A) conf t
B) show run
C) enable secret
D) interface vlan1

conf t

81
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Which command assigns a hostname to a Cisco switch?
A) hostname (name)
B) setname (name)
C) switchname (name)
D) device (name)

hostname (name)

82
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What is the purpose of the command enable secret mypassword?
A) Sets a password for privileged EXEC mode
B) Enables the switch interface
C) Configures an IP address
D) Encrypts all switch passwords

Sets a password for privileged EXEC mode

83
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Which command assigns an IP address to VLAN 1 on a switch?
A) ip route
B) ip default-gateway
C) interface vlan 1 / ip address x.x.x.x
D) switchport access vlan 1

interface vlan 1 / ip address x.x.x.x

84
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What command activates a switch interface after assigning an IP address?
A) enable ip
B) start interface
C) run config
D) no shutdown

no shutdown

85
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What is the purpose of the ip default-gateway command?
A) Sets the switch hostname
B) Defines where to send packets when no route is known
C) Displays VLAN configuration
D) Assigns a DNS server

Defines where to send packets when no route is known

86
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Which command displays the VLANs configured on a switch?
A) show vlan
B) show interface
C) show ip route
D) show config

show vlan

87
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Which of the following VLAN configurations would assign ports Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4 to VLAN 2 (Sales)?
A) switch(config)# vlan 2 / switch(config-vlan)# name Sales / switch(config)# interface range fa0/2–4 / switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 2
B) vlan create 2 Sales ports 2–4
C) vlan add 2,3,4 Sales
D) set vlan Sales 2

switch(config)# vlan 2 / switch(config-vlan)# name Sales / switch(config)# interface range fa0/2–4 / switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

88
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Which device is primarily responsible for separating broadcast domains?
A) Switch
B) Router
C) Hub
D) Repeater

Router

89
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What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
A) Increase data transfer speed
B) Prevent routing loops
C) Prevent switching loops
D) Encrypt VLAN traffic

Prevent switching loops

90
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When configuring a router, what is the purpose of the interface command (e.g., interface g0/0)?
A) To view all interfaces
B) To access a specific interface for configuration
C) To restart the router
D) To enable routing protocols

To access a specific interface for configuration

91
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Attenuation in optical fibers is____

gradual loss of signal strength (light power) as it travels through the fiber.

92
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Dispersion is__

the spreading out of light pulses over distance as different light modes or wavelengths travel at slightly different speeds.

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