Pathophys Final - ALL Prequizzes

What is the most common cause of amenorrhea in women of childbearing age?

A. hypothyroidism

B. pregnancy

C. medication-related

D. malnutrition

B. pregnancy

Patients with dysmenorrhea produce excessive amounts of what substance during menses?

A. prostaglandins

B. estrogen

C. progesterone

D. leukotrienes

A. prostaglandins

How does progesterone stabilize the endometrium?

A. it accelerates the replicatin of endometrial cells

B. it thickens the uterine and cervical mucus

C. it regulates the relaxation and contraction of spiral arteries in the endometrium

D. it stimulates the follicle to release a mature ovum into the fallopian tube

C. it regulates the relaxation and contraction of spiral arteries in the endometrium

Abdominal pain that coincides with menses should raise suspicion for which underlying diagnosis?

A. appendicitis

B. endometriosis

C. colitis

D. adenomyosis

B. endometriosis

Anovulation causes abnormal uterine bleeding due to the absence of adequate amounts of which hormone?

A. progesterone

B. estrogen

C. testosterone

D. prostaglandins

A. progesterone

Pelvic inflammatory disease carries a risk of which of the following complications?

A. fibroids

B. endometriosis

C. infertility

D. ovarian cyst formation

C. infertility

A 64 y/o woman presents with intermittent vaginal bleeding for 4 days. Which of the following disorders must be considered in this patient?

A. polycystic ovarian syndrome

B. endometriosis

C. endometrial cancer

D. pelvic inflammatory disease

C. endometrial cancer

Which area of the cervix are cells sampled from during a Pap test?

A. squamous zone

B. columnar zone

C. uterine cavity

D. transformation zone

D. transformation zone

T/F: A patient is given a medication that increases GABA activity in the brain. Taking too much of this medication in a short period of time would pose the risk of causing a seizure.

False

Which of the following states would most significantly increase the risk of a cerebral vascular accident:

A. hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

B. atrial fibrillation

C. fever

D. alcohol withdrawal

B. atrial fibrillation

Which of the following is traditionally considered a modifiable risk factor for the development of osteoporosis?

A. advancing age

B. sex

C. family history of osteoporosis

D. low dietary calcium intake

D. low dietary calcium intake

Which of the following best explains the radiologic finding of joint space narrowing on x-rays of patients with osteoarthritis?

A. loss of articular cartilage

B. subchondral sclerosis

C. joint mice formation

D. fibrosis of the articular capsule

A. loss of articular cartilage

Which of the following medications carries the risk of causing hypothyroidism?

A. synthroid

B. amiodarone

C. hydrochlorothiazide

D. metoprolol

B. amiodarone

T/F: Grave's disease occurs from autoimmune destruction of cells that make up the thyroid gland.

False

Primary hypothyroidism would most likely have which collection of laboratory results?

A. low tsh, low t3/t4

B. high tsh, low t3,t4

C. high tsh, normal t3/t4

D. low tsh, normal t3/t4

B. high tsh, low t3,t4

Which of the following is the greatest driver of insulin production by pancreatic beta cells?

A. glucose

B. glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)

C. Parasympathetic stimulation

D. Sympathetic stimulation

A. glucose

T/F: Weight loss is a sign of improved glucose control in a patient with Type I Diabetes

False

Which of the following does not help explain the recommendation of yearly diabetic foot exams in patients?

A. Their sensory neuropathy increases the chance of injury

B. Vascular disease decreases immune response to injury in the foot

C. Hyperglycemia encourages rapid proliferation of bacteria, making infections more likely

D. Diabetes increases the rate of nail growth, thus necessitating more frequent grooming and evaluation.

D. Diabetes increases the rate of nail growth, thus necessitating more frequent grooming and evaluation.

Which of the following types of cells is at risk of osmotic injury from hyperglycemia?

A. skeletal muscle cells

B. vascular endothelial cells

C. hematopoietic stem cells

D. Schwann cells

D. Schwann cells

A patient with an esophageal stricture is most likely to present with which of the following patterns of symptoms?

A. dysphagia that occurs only to liquids and is felt in the mid-sterum

B. dysphagia when trying to intiate swallowing that is worse with solid foods

C. dysphagia that occurs with solids, not liquids and is felt in the mid-sternum area

D. odynophagia without true dysphagia

C. dysphagia that occurs with solids, not liquids and is felt in the mid-sternum area

T/F: A hiatal hernia is a common cause of a mechanical bowel obstruction.

False

Which of the following classes of medications increases the risk of peptic ulcer disease by decreasing gastric mucus production?

A. NSAIDs

B. anti-hypertensives

C. anticholinergics

D. nitrates

A. NSAIDs

A patient is given a medication that when taken orally, increases the osmolarity in the intestinal lumen. Which of the following side effects would you expect to observe?

A. gastritis

B. constipation

C. diarrhea

D. abdominal distension

C. diarrhea

Alcohol leads to the development of cirrhosis due to the buildup of which of the following in the liver?

A. bilirubin

B. antioxidants

C. reactive oxygen species

D. acetyl CoA

C. reactive oxygen species

Which of the following is a potential consequence of portal hypertension?

A. esophageal varcies

B. hepatic encephalopathy

C. bleeding due to decreased production of coagulation factors

D. jaundice

A. esophageal varcies

Which of the following electrolyte disorders is most likely to develop as a result of ascites?

A. hypercalcemia

B. hyponatremia

C. hyperkalemia

D. hypoalbuminemia

B. hyponatremia

Which of the following causes pancreatitis by stopping the flow of pancreatic fluid exiting the pancreas?

A. hypertrigleridemia

B. ethanol intake

C. autoimmune pancreatitis

D. choledocholithiasis

D. choledocholithiasis

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk of a urinary tract infection?

A. A 45 y/o man on a diuretic for hypertension

B. A 40 y/o woman with an indwelling urinary catheter

C. A 25 y/o woman with a history of constipation

D. A 52 y/o man with mild prostate enlargement

B. A 40 y/o woman with an indwelling urinary catheter

Which of the following changes would be most likely to cause a decrease in GFR?

A. an increase in glomerular hydrostatic pressure

B. an increase in tubular hydrostatic pressure

C. a decrease in blood colloid osmotic pressure

D. a decrease in tubular hydrostatic pressure

B. an increase in tubular hydrostatic pressure

Acute kidney injury results in all of the following EXCEPT

A. an increase in serum creatinine concentration

B. a decrease in urine output

C. a decrease in GFR

D. an increase in urine urea concentration

D. an increase in urine urea concentration

Which of the following is a possible pre-renal cause of acute kidney injury

A. benign prostatic hypertrophy

B. neurogenic bladder

C. injury from nephrotoxic agents, such as IV contrast

D. dehydration

D. dehydration

Disruption in which of the following functions of the respiratory system is most likely to result in hypercapnia?

A. Inhalation

B. Diffusion

C. Perfusion

D. Ventilation

D. Ventilation

What is the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism behind respiratory failure in patients presenting with an opiate overdose?

A. Opiates decrease respiratory drive, thus decreasing ventilation.

B. Opiates disrupt perfusion by inducing pulmonary capillary vasoconstriction

C. Opiates disrupt ventilation by blocking nerve transmission at the neuromuscular junction

D. Opiates increase respiratory rate, leading to a respiratory alkalosis

A. Opiates decrease respiratory drive, thus decreasing ventilation.

True or false: In pneumothorax, tidal volume is reduced because of the development of positive pressure in the pleural space.

True

A patient with hypoalbuminemia due to end-stage-liver disease is most likely to develop a pleural effusion due to which of the following?

A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

B. Decreased capillary onsmotic pressure

C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure

D. Increased capillary osmotic pressure

B. Decreased capillary onsmotic pressure

Which of the following diseases can cause an increase in dead space, worsening alveolar ventilation rate?

A. pulmonary fibrosis

B. surfactant deficiency disorder

C. pleural effusion

D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Expiratory wheezing is a common clinical sign of which of the following types of pulmonary disease?

A. obstructive

B. infectious

C. perfusion-related

D. restrictive

A. obstructive

Which of the following is most common source of a pulmonary embolism.

A. Fat embolus from long bone fracture

B. Right atrial thrombus

C. septic embolus from infective endocarditis

D. deep vein thrombosis

D. deep vein thrombosis

Pulmonary hypertension can occur due to chronic lung disease directly from which of the following mechanisms?

A. goblet cell hypertrophy

B. hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

C. hypoxic pulmonary vasodilation

D. impaired mucociliary function

B. hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

In hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, there is asymmetric growth of which heart structure, leading to a potential outflow tract obstruction?

A. left atrium

B. right atrium

C. ventricular septum

D. aortic valve

C. ventricular septum

True or false: The body's normal response to hypotension temporarily helps to reduce the burden on an injured or dysfunctional heart

False

Which of the following is decreased in patients with restrictive cardiomyopathies?

A. afterload

B. preload

C. contractility

D. heart rate

B. preload

What is the primary mechanism through which cigarette smoking contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?

A. cigarette toxins suppress the inflammatory response

B. cigarette toxins cause direct vascular endothelial injury

C. Nicotine in cigarettes stimulates appetite and contributes to obesity and dyslipidemia

D. Nicotine in cigarettes suppresses HDL production

B. cigarette toxins cause direct vascular endothelial injury

Why is it that patients experiencing myocardial ischemia may complain of arm or jaw pain?

A. decreased cardiac output leads to ischemia of the muscles in these areas

B. decreased cardiac output leads to lactic acid build up in these areas

C. a surge of sympathetic neurotransmitters leads to the activation of pain fibers in the arms and jaw

D. afferent sensory fibers of the heart and these areas share common sites of entry into the spinal cord

D. afferent sensory fibers of the heart and these areas share common sites of entry into the spinal cord

True or false: Patients with essential hypertension have overactivity of natriuretic peptides.

False

What cells are responsible for the release of histamine in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A. macrophages

B. mast cells

C. B cells

D. cytotoxic T cells

B. mast cells

A student asks about the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions. What description by the professor is best?

A. Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

B. Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

C. Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

D. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface of specific tissues

D. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface of specific tissues

What are blood transfusion reactions an example of?

A. Autoimmunity

B. Alloimmunity

C. Allergy

D. Immnodeficiency

B. Alloimmunity

Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for developing autoimmune disease?

A. family history of autoimmune disease

B. male sex

C. corticosteroid use

D. vegetarian diet

A. family history of autoimmune disease

True or false: Type II hypersensitivity reactions will always result in death of the targeted cell type.

False

Which of these is classified as a macrocytic anemia?

A. Iron deficiency

B. pernicious

C. hemolytic

D. hemorrhagic

B. pernicious

Which of the following patients with a microcytic anemia would you NOT expect to improve with iron therapy?

A. A 24 y/o female with heavy menses

B. A 30 y/o female who is pregnant at 28 weeks gestation

C. A 40 y/o M with a recent GI bleed (now resolved) from erosive gastritis

D. A 50 year old female with lupus

D. A 50 year old female with lupus

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which iron deficiency results in tissue hypoxia?

A. Deficiency in iron suppresses erythropoietin production by the kidneys.

B. Iron deficient erythrocytes are abnormally small; therefore, they get stuck in splenic capillaries, leading to accelerated hemolysis.

C. Iron deficient erythrocytes are deficient in hemoglobin and therefore have decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

D. Iron deficiency increases hepcidin production, which decreases bone marrow response to erythropoietin and decreases the number of erythrocytes in circulation.

C. Iron deficient erythrocytes are deficient in hemoglobin and therefore have decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

Cells die to hypoxia primarily due to an inability to power which of the following structures?

A. sodium-potassium ATPase pump

B. endoplasmic reticulum

C. ribosomes

D. sodium leak channels

A. sodium-potassium ATPase pump

The symptoms of scaling and dryness of the skin occur due to destruction of which structure/cell of the epidermis?

A. melanocytes

B. dendritic cells

C. ceramides and linking proteins

D. eccrine sweat glands

C. ceramides and linking proteins

Why does basal cell carcinoma often have a pearly appearance on exam?

A. rapid growth of basal cells stretch the overlying epidermal layers

B. basal cells replace dendritic cells in the epidermis

C. basal cells outgrow their blood supply

D. basal cells multiply, producing excessive amounts of keratin

A. rapid growth of basal cells stretch the overlying epidermal layers

Which of the following examination findings would most likely be observed in a patient presenting with pulmonary fibrosis?

A. hyperinflation and a barrel-shaped chest

B. expiratory wheezing

C. decreased chest wall excursion

D. decreased breath sounds only on one side

C. decreased chest wall excursion

The presence of which of the following physical exam features would be most suggestive of anaphylaxis in a patient presenting with undifferentiated hypotension?

A. pedal edema

B. urticaria

C. decreased breath sounds on one side

D. distant heart sounds

B. urticaria

Patients with acute renal failure are at risk of all of the following complications EXCEPT:

A. hyperkalemia

B. acidemia

C. pulmonary edema

D. acute blood loss anemia

D. acute blood loss anemia

In a patient with a structurally normal heart, a deep vein thrombosis in the leg is most likely to result in which of the following complications?

A. myocardial infarction

B. pulmonary embolus

C. cerebrovascular accident

D. pre-renal acute kidney injury

B. pulmonary embolus

A patient suffers a myocardial infarction to a substantial portion of the right ventricle, resulting in right-sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs/symptoms would you most expect in this patient?

A. peripheral edema

B. pulmonary edema

C. a transudative pleural effusion

D. hemoptysis

A. peripheral edema

Which of the following patients would you most expect to improve with rapid administration of IV fluids

A. a patient with hypotension due to a large saddle pulmonary embolus

B. a patient with hypotension due to a spinal cord injury

C. patient with hypotension due to 3 days of high volume vomiting and diarrhea

D. A patient with hypotension after a large myocardial infarction

C. patient with hypotension due to 3 days of high volume vomiting and diarrhea

A patient presents after a motor vehicle collision and is noted to have diffuse abdominal pain and bruising over the lower abdomen. Which of the following comorbidities would place the patient at greatest risk for intra-abdominal hemorrhage?

A. vitamin K deficiency

B. pulmonary fibrosis

C. coronary artery disease

D. pernicious anemia

A. vitamin K deficiency

T/F: Diffuse systemic vasodilation would help to increase oxygen delivery to an organ that has a sudden increase in its oxygen requirement

False

Derangements in which of the following substances is most likely to cause issues with processes that require muscle contraction?

A. calcium

B. albumin

C. urea

D. ammonia

A. calcium

Which of the following characteristics observed when examining a tisue specimen would be most suggestive of a malignant tumor?

A. very few mitotic cells

B. the presence of a connective tissue capsule

C. many mitotic cells

D. well-differentiated tissue

C. many mitotic cells