Top 200

Promethazine with codeine would be contraindicated in all of the following patients EXCEPT:

• A 37 year old with mild hepatic impairment

• A 48 year old with a known GI obstruction

• A 10 year old with a persistent cough (otherwise healthy)

• X - A 15 year old who recently underwent a tonsillectomy

A 37 year old with mild hepatic impairment

Which of these is an appropriate counseling point for latanoprost?

• May cause discoloration of iris

• After using bottle, return to refrigerated temperature within 30 minutes

• Other ophthalmic formulations should be discontinued when starting this medication

• Wait 30 minutes before reinserting contact lenses

May cause discoloration of iris

Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Pred Forte?

• Gently shake bottle before each use

• Apply drop directly onto lacrimal sac (inside corner of eye)

• Bottle must be stored in refrigerator if not used within 14 days

• Wait 60 minutes before re-inserting contact lenses

Gently shake bottle before each use

Which of these best describes the mechanism of action of benzonatate?

• Blocks postsynaptic mesolimbic dopaminergic receptors in the brain

• Blocks release of histamine from mast cells

• Acts as a topical anesthetic on respiratory stretch receptors

• Acts as an inhibitor of reversible inhibitor of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

Acts as a topical anesthetic on respiratory stretch receptors

It would be LEAST appropriate to counsel a patient on the increased risk of low blood sugar as a direct result of which of these agents?

• Januvia

• Amaryl

• Toujeo

• Humalog

Januvia

Which of the following if MOST likely to be a rare but serious side effect of sitagliptan?

• pancreatitis

• DKA

• Torsades de Pointes

• hyroid carcinoma

pancreatitis

A patient with an A1c of 8% (obtained today in clinic) and average fasting BG of 160 mg/dL is started on glipizide ER 5 mg daily every morning. Which of the following would be LEAST important to monitor at the first follow-up visit in 4-6 weeks?

• Hemoglobin A1c

• Symptoms of hunger, tremor, or diaphoresis

• Weight

• Fasting blood glucose

Hemoglobin A1c

Which of the BEST describes the controlled substance categorization for promethazine with codeine?

• C-III, C-IV, C-V

• Non-controlled Rx

• OTC

• C-II

C-III, C-IV, C-V

Which of the BEST describes the controlled substance categorization for Vicodin?

• C-III, C-IV, C-V

• Non-controlled Rx

• OTC

• C-II

C-II

Which of the BEST describes the controlled substance categorization for Elavil?

• C-III, C-IV, C-V

• Non-controlled Rx

• OTC

• C-II

Non-controlled Rx

Which of the BEST describes the controlled substance categorization for Ultram?

• C-III, C-IV, C-V

• Non-controlled Rx

• OTC

• C-II

C-III, C-IV, C-V

Which of the following is a C-II?

• Endocet

• Dilantin

• Xanax

• Lunesta

Endocet

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for allopurinol EXCEPT

• fibromyalgia

• prevention of tumor lysis syndrome

• prevention of nephrolithiasis

• gout

fibromyalgia

Which of the following is a labeled or common off-label indication for benztropine?

• Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms

• OCD

• Rheumatoid arthritis

• Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis

Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for prednisone EXCEPT

• Cushing’s disease

• COPD exacerbation

• Giant cell arteritis

• Gout flare

Cushing’s disease

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for amiodarone EXCEPT

• supraventricular tachycardia

• sudden cardiac arrest due to ventricular arrhythmias

• second- or third-degree AV block

• atrial fibrillation

second- or third-degree AV block

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for spironolactone EXCEPT

• vasomotor symptoms of menopause

• ascites

• hirsutism

• heart failure

vasomotor symptoms of menopause

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for paroxetine EXCEPT

• premenstrual dysphoric disorder

• infertility

• post-traumatic stress disorder

• vasomotor symptoms of menopause

infertility

All of the following are labeled or common off-label indications for propranolol EXCEPT

• performance anxiety

• thyroid storm

• hirsutism

• essential tremor

hirsutism

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an important monitoring parameter in a patient who takes prednisone chronically for immunosuppression?

• serum ferritin

• pulmonary function tests

• bone mineral density

• serum vitamin B12

bone mineral density

Tadalafil should be avoided in patients taking which of the following?

• losartan

• propranolol

• isosorbide mononitrate

• simvastatin

isosorbide mononitrate

Levemir is what therapeutic class of insulin?

• Rapid Acting Insulin

• Intermediate Acting Insulin

• Long Acting Insulin

• None of the Above

Long Acting Insulin

Which of the following is LEAST important to monitor after starting a patient on Januvia?

• Serum potassium

• CrCl

• Symptoms of severe abdominal pain

• X - Symptoms of fatigue, dyspnea, and edema

All of the following are appropriate monitoring parameters for hydromorphone EXCEPT: 

• Restless leg symptoms

• Constipation symptoms

• Blood pressure

• Pain control

Restless leg symptoms

Which of the following is MOST likely to be appropriate set of monitoring parameters for modafanil? 

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, EKG 

• Blood pressure, heart rate, EKG

• Blood pressure, heart rate, development of skin reactions

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, fasting lipids

Blood pressure, heart rate, development of skin reactions?

Which of the following is a contraindication of Jardiance?

• history of thyroid carcinoma 

• hepatic impairment

• eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73m^2

• dialysis

dialysis

Which of the following contains BOTH a Potassium Sparing diuretic and a Thiazide diuretic?

• Maxzide

• Aldactone

• Prinzide

• Microzide

Maxzide

Which of the following is/are an appropriate counseling point for Provigil?

• Take dose in the morning

• Should not be used if you are unable to devote at least 8 hours to sleep

• Take dose with a meal for full to get full benefit

• All of the listed choices

Take dose in the morning

Waist circumference is MOST LIKELY to be an appropriate monitoring parameter for which of the following medications?

• guanfacine

• carbamazepine

• hydroxyzine hydrochloride

• quetiapine

quetiapine?

Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Medrol?

• May be injected into the abdomen, thigh, or back of upper arm

• May cause low blood sugar

• Administer with food, immediately after eating

• Administer in the evening to increase effectiveness

Administer with food, immediately after eating

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of aripiprazole? 

• Antagonist at D2 receptors

• Full agonist at D2 receptor

• Partial agonist at D2 and 5HT1A receptors, and antagonist at 5HT2A receptors

• Antagonist at D2, 5HT1A, and 5HT2A receptors

Partial agonist at D2 and 5HT1A receptors, and antagonist at 5HT2A receptors

To which therapeutic class does phentermine belong?

• Skeletal Muscle Relaxant

• Antiarrhythmic

• Rheumatoid Arthritis Agent

• Central Nervous System Stimulant - Weight Management Agent

Central Nervous System Stimulant - Weight Management Agent

Which of the following is an aminoglycoside antibiotic?

• Nebcin

• Primaxin

• Anectine

• Vancocin

Nebcin (tobramycin)

Which of these is LEAST likely to cause hypotension?

• alprazolam

• pramipexole

• ropinirole

• fluoxetine

fluoxetine?

Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of action of memantine?

• Reversibly and noncompetitively inhibits centrally-active acetylcholinesterase

• Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit

• Inhibits release of glutamate and inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels 

• Uncompetitive antagonist of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) type of glutamate receptors

Uncompetitive antagonist of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) type of glutamate receptors

What is the mechanism of action for tiotropium bromide? Choose the BEST answer:

• Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by action on muscarinic receptors AND decreases inflammation through depressing migration of leukocytes and reversing capillary permeability

• Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by action on muscarinic receptors

• Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by action on beta2 receptors

• Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by action on beta2 receptors AND decreases inflammation through depressing migration of leukocytes and reversing capillary permeability

Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by action on muscarinic receptors

Klonopin carries a black box warning regarding:

• Risk of exacerbating underlying eating disorders

• Risk of extravasation when given IV

• Risk of seizures in patients with a history of epilepsy

• Risk of respiratory depression when used with opioids

Risk of respiratory depression when used with opioids

Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a rare but serious side effect of amitriptyline?

• serotonin syndrome

• profound bradycardia

• pancreatitis

• intraoperative floppy iris syndrome

serotonin syndrome

To which therapeutic class does nifedipine belong?

• Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blocker

• Cardiac Glycoside

• Alpha₁ Blocker

• Vasodilator

Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blocker

Which of the following concerning symptoms is LEAST likely to be associated with a patient's recent initiation of phentermine?

• urinary tract infection

• increased seizure frequency

• insomnia

• elevated blood pressure

urinary tract infection

Which of the following is MOST likely to be appropriate set of monitoring parameters for olanzapine?

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, EKG

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, fasting lipids

• Blood pressure, heart rate, development of skin reactions

• Blood pressure, heart rate, EKG

Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, fasting lipids

Methadone should be used with caution in patients who are concurrently taking __________.

• hypoglycemic agents

• NSAIDs

• QTc prolonging agents

• warfarin

QTc prolonging agents

To which of the following therapeutic classes does Arimidex belong?

• Antimigraine Agent

• Antineoplastic

• Antiparkinson Agent

• Anticonvulsant

Antineoplastic

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate counseling point for alprazolam?

• Administer with a full glass of water

• Will take several weeks to see benefit

• Avoid concurrent use of NSAIDs

• Do not stop taking abruptly

Do not stop taking abruptly

Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a rare but serious side effect of phenobarbital?

• hypokalemia

• hypertension

• cough

• sedation

sedation

Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a rare but serious side effect of Vyvanse?

• Acute renal failure

• Acute hepatic failure

• Acute cardiovascular events

• Agranulocytosis

Acute cardiovascular events

Co-administration of lamotrigine with divalproex is MOST LIKELY to result in:

• Decreased divalproex levels

• Decreased lamotrigine levels

• Increased lamotrigine levels

• Increased divalproex levels

Increased lamotrigine levels

Which of the following is a black box warning for MS Contin?

• Concurrent use of NSAIDs

• Tardive Dyskinesia

• Concurrent use of alcohol

• Rash

Concurrent use of alcohol

Which of the following is a black box warning for Cymbalta?

• Suicidal ideation in children and young adults

• Agranulocytosis

• Parkinsonian-like symptoms

• Paresthesia

Suicidal ideation in children and young adults

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of Prozac? 

• Inhibits reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine, thereby increasing levels of serotonin AND norepinephrine in synapses

• Promotes reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine, thereby decreasing levels of serotonin AND norepinephrine in synapses

• Inhibits reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing levels of serotonin in synapses

• Promotes reuptake of serotonin, thereby decreasing levels of serotonin in synapses

Inhibits reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing levels of serotonin in synapses

Which of the following is a black box warning for phenytoin?

• Cardiovascular events with rapid infusion 

• First-dose syncope

• Potential for abuse or misuse

• Rash

Cardiovascular events with rapid infusion 

Phenobarbital is contraindicated in _________________. 

• significant renal disease

• heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)

• significant hepatic disease 

• X - pediatric patients

significant hepatic disease?

Which of the following is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)?

• Cozaar

• Ambien

• Celexa

• Coreg

Celexa

Vancocin belongs to which therapeutic class?

• sedative

• antiarrhythmic

• neuromuscular blocker agent

• antibiotic

antibiotic

Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a side effect of Atarax?

• dyspnea

• dry mouth

• insomnia

• rash

dry mouth

Co-administration of lamotrigine with phenytoin is MOST LIKELY to result in:

• Decreased phenytoin levels

• Increased phenytoin levels

• Increased lamotrigine levels

• Decreased lamotrigine levels

Decreased lamotrigine levels

All of the following medications primarily exert their effects by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS EXCEPT:

• Neurontin

• Tramadol

• Duragesic

• Norco

Neurontin

Which of these pairings includes two drugs with the MOST similar mechanism of action? 

• Dilantin & Depakote

• Cymbalta & Keppra

• Lyrica & Neurontin

• Ambien & Tramadol

Lyrica & Neurontin

Lunesta is contraindicated in patients who ___________________.

• have heart failure reduced-ejection fraction (HFrEF)

• experience abnormal dreams after taking it

• have a history of anorexia

• experience sleepwalking after taking it

experience sleepwalking after taking it

Vyvanse carries a black box warning regarding:

• Respiratory depression when used with opioids

• Thromboembolic events

• Dementia-related psychosis

• Potential for misuse and dependence

Potential for misuse and dependence

Tamsulosin belongs in which therapeutic class?

• Beta Blocker

• Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug (NSAID)

• Sulfonylurea

• Alpha 1 Blocker

Alpha 1 Blocker

Which of the following is/are an appropriate counseling point for Suboxone sublingual film?

• Wait one hour after administration before brushing teeth

• Chew until a "peppery taste" develops before parking film under tongue

• x - All of the listed choices

• If film has not dissolved after 5 minutes, gently move it a different location in your mouth

Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a side effect of venlafaxine?

• sexual dysfunction

• dyspnea

• nausea

• diaphoresis

dyspnea

Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Xarelto?

• Doses greater than 10 mg should be taken with food

• Stop taking immediately if you begin to bruise more easily

• Maintain a diet consistent in vitamin K

• Avoid products containing diphenhydramine

Doses greater than 10 mg should be taken with food

Which of the following is MOST likely to be appropriate set of monitoring parameters for modafanil? 

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, fasting lipids 

• Blood pressure, heart rate, development of skin reactions

• Blood pressure, heart rate, EKG

• Body mass index, A1c, blood pressure, EKG

Blood pressure, heart rate, development of skin reactions

Which of these medications is most likely to increase serum concentrations of lithium when used concomitantly with lithium carbonate?

• hydralazine

• chlorthalidone

• amlodipine

• oral contraceptives

chlorthalidone

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of oxcarbazepine?

• Antagonizes presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which results in increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin

• Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit

• Inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels which stabilizes neuronal membranes Blocks voltage-sensitive sodium channels

• Facilitates GABA-ergic inhibitory transmission through displacement of negative modulators and reduces delayed rectifier potassium current

Inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels which stabilizes neuronal membranes Blocks voltage-sensitive sodium channels

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of lamotrigine?

• Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit

• Facilitates GABA-ergic inhibitory transmission through displacement of negative modulators and reduces delayed rectifier potassium current

• Inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels which stabilizes neuronal membranes

• Antagonizes presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which results in increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin

Inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels which stabilizes neuronal membranes

Which of the following is a contraindication for bupropion?

• Uncontrolled diabetes

• Hyperprolactinemia

• Concurrent therapy with SSRIs

• History of anorexia

History of anorexia

Zyprexa carries a black box warning regarding increased mortality in patients with:

• Anorexia

• Uncontrolled major depressive disorder

• Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)

• Dementia-related psychosis

Dementia-related psychosis

Carafate belongs to which of the following therapeutic classes of medication?

• Antianxiety Agent

• Antipsychotic

• Anticonvulsant

• Antiulcer Agent

Antiulcer Agent

Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Duragesic patches? 

• Patches can be folded in half and flushed down toilet (if a drug take-back program is unavailable)

• Apply directly to site of pain

• If applying to a hairy site, shave area prior to use

• If applying a heat source, limit exposure to 30 minutes

Patches can be folded in half and flushed down toilet (if a drug take-back program is unavailable)

Which of these is LEAST likely to be a side effect of gabapentin?

• dizziness

• ataxia

• peripheral edema

• insomnia

insomnia

Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a side effect of Lexapro?

• insomnia

• edema

• nausea

• drowsiness

edema

Which of the following is MOST likely to occur as a side effect of amitriptyline? 

• insomnia

• polyuria

• xerostomia

• cough

xerostomia

Which of the following is/are appropriate monitoring parameters for lithium?

• Serum creatinine

• TSH

• Serum calcium

• All of the listed choices

All of the listed choices

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a rare but serious side effect of empagliflozin?

• diabetic ketoacidosis

• thyroid carcinoma

• torsades de pointes

• pancreatitis

diabetic ketoacidosis

Which of these combinations would be MOST likely to increase risk of profound sedation when used concurrently?

• Valium & Dilaudid

• Vyvanse & BuSpar

• Ritalin & Effexor

• Wellbutrin & Zoloft

Valium & Dilaudid

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

• Antagonizes dopamine receptors on intracranial blood vessels and sensory trigeminal nerves

• Antagonizes serotonin receptors on intracranial blood vessels and sensory trigeminal nerves

• Agonizes dopamine receptors on intracranial blood vessels and sensory trigeminal nerves

• Agonizes serotonin receptors on intracranial blood vessels and sensory trigeminal nerves

Agonizes serotonin receptors on intracranial blood vessels and sensory trigeminal nerves

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of gabapentin?

• Inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels which stabilizes neuronal membranes

• Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit, resulting in decreased release of glutamate

• Antagonizes presynaptic alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which results in increased release of norepinephrine and serotonin

• Facilitates GABA-ergic inhibitory transmission through displacement of negative modulators and reduces delayed rectifier potassium current

Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit, resulting in decreased release of glutamate

Diazepam is contraindicated in which of the following patients?

• A 34 year old with sleep apnea prescribed oral tablets for anxiety

• A 22 year old who is experiencing acute ethanol withdrawal

• A 9 year old with history of epilepsy prescribed rectal gel prn for seizure

• A 27 year old who is initiating paroxetine for anxiety

A 34 year old with sleep apnea prescribed oral tablets for anxiety

To which therapeutic class does amlodipine belong?

• Antidepressant

• Sedative

• Antihypertensive

• Skeletal Muscle Relaxant

Antihypertensive

Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point for Duragesic patches?

• If applying a heat source, limit exposure to 30 minutes

• Patches can be folded in half and flushed down toilet (if a drug take-back program is unavailable)

• X - If applying to a hairy site, shave area prior to use

• Apply directly to site of pain

Which of these is MOST likely to occur as a side effect of morphine?

• diarrhea

• constipation

• hypertension

• hypertriglyceridemia

constipation

Which electrolyte disturbance is MOST likely to be caused by oxcarbazepine?

• hypernatremia

• hyperkalemia

• hypokalemia

• hyponatremia

hyponatremia

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a side effect of valsartan?

• hyperkalemia

• increased SCr

• hypotension

• hypomagnesemia

hypomagnesemia

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate monitoring parameter for levetiracetam?

• Serum potassium

• Serum sodium

• Psychiatric disturbances

• Urine microalbumin

Psychiatric disturbances

All of the following are contraindications to the use of phentermine EXCEPT:

• Pregnancy

• Stimulant use disorder

• History of pancreatitis

• Hyperthyroidism

History of pancreatitis

Topiramate is most likely to decrease levels of which of the following?

• chlorthalidone

• amlodipine

• oral contraceptives

• hydralazine

oral contraceptives

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of Effexor? 

• Inhibits reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine, thereby increasing levels of serotonin AND norepinephrine in synapses

• Promotes reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine, thereby decreasing levels of serotonin AND norepinephrine in synapses

• Promotes reuptake of serotonin, thereby decreasing levels of serotonin in synapses

• Inhibits reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing levels of serotonin in synapses

Inhibits reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine, thereby increasing levels of serotonin AND norepinephrine in synapses

Which of these BEST describes the mechanism of action of Aricept?

• Inhibits release of glutamate and inhibits voltage sensitive sodium channels

• Binds to voltage-gated calcium channels that possess the alpha-2-delta-1 subunit

• Reversibly and noncompetitively inhibits centrally-active acetylcholinesterase

• Uncompetitive antagonist of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) type of glutamate receptors

Reversibly and noncompetitively inhibits centrally-active acetylcholinesterase

Which of these is MOST likely to be a serious side effect of pramipexole? 

• Torsades de Pointes

• Stevens-Johnson syndrome

• Hallucinations

• Hepatic failure

Hallucinations

Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a side effect of mirtazapine?

• insomnia

• hyperlipidemia

• weight gain

• xerostomia

insomnia

Which of these is LEAST likely to be a side effect of Strattera?

• bradycardia

• decreased appetite

• xerostomia

• hypertension

bradycardia

Which of the following is/are an appropriate counseling point for Imitrex?

• The needleless injection (Sumavel DosePro) can be given in the abdomen or thigh

• Take dose as soon as migraine symptoms appear

• All of the listed choices

• Take oral tablet with or without food

All of the listed choices

The medication latanoprost belongs to which therapeutic class?

• Glaucoma Agent- Ophthalmic Prostaglandin

• Antianxiety Agent

• Gastric Antisecretory- H2 Antagonist

• Anticonvulsant

Glaucoma Agent- Ophthalmic Prostaglandin

Which of the following is a black box warning for lamotrigine?

• Rash

• Cardiovascular events with rapid infusion

• Potential for abuse or misuse

• First-dose syncope

Rash

Which of these is a contraindication for Wellbutrin XL?

• Current smoker

• Seizure disorder

• History of DVT

• Concurrent therapy with SSRIs

Seizure disorder

Antacids should not be administered at the same time as which of the following antibiotics?

• clindamycin

• amoxicillin with clavulanate

• fluconazole

• ciprofloxacin

ciprofloxacin

All of the following are appropriate monitoring parameters for Lotensin EXCEPT: 

• blood pressure

• serum uric acid

• serum potassium

• serum creatinine

serum uric acid