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Which of the ff is not an outcome included in the definition of pharmaceutical care?
a. cure of disease
b. elimination or reduction of symptoms
c. arresting or slowing down of the disease process
d. prevention of disease symptoms
e. reducing health care costs
E
Active listening consists of which of the following tasks?
a. Focusing on what the other person says
b. Assessing the way the other person communicates
c. Conveying an open, relaxed, and unhurried attitude
d. None of the above
D
Current prescription information included all of the ff. except:
a. the name and description of the drug
b. the date or time the medication was stopped
c. the dosage of the drug
d. the prescribed and actual dosing schedule
e. the date and time the medication was started
B
Which of the ff. is a disadvantage of reviewing all available information about a patient before interviewing the
patient?
a. the pharmacists feels more comfortable
b. the pharmacist is prepared to address specific issues
c. the pharmacist may be too focused and overlook important issues
d. the pharmacist is completely unbiased about all aspects of the history
e. this can be a very intimidating process
C
During the interview, the pharmacist observes that the patient's clothing has a predominance of Velcro-type
fastenings. This may indicate which of the following?
a. Photosensitivity d. loss of manual dexterity
b. recent weight loss e. gout
c. recent weight gain
D
Skills required for patient-centered pharmacy practice include which of the
Following:
a. therapeutic planning and monitoring skills
b. physical assessment skills
c. communication skills
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
D
Demographic patient information includes all of the ff. except:
a. age d. ethnic origin
b. height e. dietary restrictions
c. weight
E
What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy?
a. the date or time the reaction occurred
b. the interventions performed to manage the reaction
c. whether the patient has received similar medications
d. all of the above
D
A patient had an appendectomy 40 years ago. This information belongs in which section of the patient case?
a. HPI d. FH
b. PMH e. ROS
c. SH
B
Vital signs include all of the following except:
a. blood pressure d. respiratory rate
b. cardiac output c. heart rate
c. temperature
B
Cerebellar function is assessed using this test:
a. Romberg's test d. Weber's test
b. Doll's test e. Srellen's chart
c. Rinnes test
A
Which of the following are needed to monitor patient response to drug therapy?
a. knowledge of pharmacotherapeutics
b. knowledge of pathophysiology
c. communication skills
d. physical assessment skills
e. all of the above
E
Which of the following is the first step in the monitoring process?
a. Monitor the response therapy
b. Assess the response theraphy
c. Set therapeutic goals
d. Integrate the monitoring plan
C
Which of the following are important considerations when evaluating an original research article?
a. Appropriateness of the study design
b. Clinical significance o sstatistically significant data
c. Study participant characteristics
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D
Which of the following are important components involved in the provision of drug information?
a. determining the primary question
b. developing an appropriate search strategy
c. assessing available information
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
D
A consumer asks whether her new prescription drug is the cause of her insomia. What type of the drug
information question is this?
a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic use
b. Dosing e. poisoning and toxicology
c. Drug administration
A
A colleague asks if ipratropium bromide (A) is FDA approved for the treatment of asthma. What type of drug
information question is this?
a. Adverse reaction d. indication & therapeutic
b. Dosing e. poisoning & toxicology
c. Drug administration
D
Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual
dosage regimens?
a. the pharmaceutical company
b. a colleague
c. a standard pharmacy textbook
d. an on-line search of the published literature
e. all of the above
C
Which of the following types questions should be avoided while interviewing the patient?
a. Leading questions d. all of the above
b. multiple questions e. none of the above
c. excessive yes/no questions
D
Which of the following is an noninvasive test or procedure?
a. venipuncture d. ultrasonography
b. angiography c. radionuclide studies
c. paracentesis
D
Which one of the following is a laboratory test or fungal skin infections?
a. rapid plasma regain test
b. venereal disease research laboratory test
c. potassium hydroxide preparation
d. white blood cell count with differential
e. cold agglutinin titer
C
The macroscopic evaluation of sputum includes all of the ff. except:
a. color d. odor
b. viscosity e. gram's
c. volume
E
Which of the following is not a subjective parameter?
a. Anxiety d. Insomnia
b. Indigestion e. Pain
c. Respiratory rate
C
Which one of the following is not an objective parameter?
a. vertigo d. hemoglobin
b. urine output e. ejection fraction
c. bilirubin
A
Which of the following is not a step in the selection of specific therapeutic regimens?
a. Creation is a list of therapeutic options for each problem
b. Selection of an appropriate therapeutic regimen for each problem
c. Identification of alternative regimens
d. Creation of a monitoring plan and monitoring of the patient
e. Identification of objective and subjective patient parameters
E
Which of the following is an objective parameter?
a. blurred vision d. tinnitus
b. temperature e. fatigue
c. headache
B
Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical behavior based?
a. do good and avoid evil
b. Do what is best for society as a whole
c. Obey all national laws
d. Maintain patient confidentiality
e. Obey all local laws
A
All of the following techniques are useful in communicating with the
Hearing-impaired elderly patient, except:
a. sitting at eye level in front of the patient
b. removing audible and visual distraction
c. raising the voice as high as necessary to be heard
d. repeating phrases to test comprehension
e. writing down the question
C
For which kind of patient is the availability of monitoring date limited?
a. a hospitalized, critically ill patient
b. a patient just started on insulin therapy
c. a patient with stable, well-controlled mild hypertension
d. a patient undergoing renal dialysis
e. a postsurgical trauma patient
C
Aspirin is the drug of choice used in:
a. Transient ischemic attack
b. Prevention of embolic events following coronary artery bypass surgery
c. Dialysis access grafts
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
D
A patient with a dry hacking cough asks the pharmacist to recommend a cough medication. The pharmacist, who
does not know the patient, recommends a popular nonprescription cough suppressant without checking the
patient's medication profile. What error did the pharmacist commit?
a. The pharmacist should have considered other patient problems
b. The pharmacist should have recommended an expectorant
c. The pharmacist should have advised the patient to see a physician
d. The pharmacist should have recommended a decongestant
e. The pharmacist should have obtained a prescription for a cough suppressant from the patient's doctor
A
Which of the following metallic ions is especially required in blood clotting process?
a. Ba c. Ca e. K
b. Na d. Mg
C
An endoscopy may provide a helpful clue for the diagnosis of which of the following?
a. endocarditis d. diabetes mellitus
b. peptil ulcer disease e. constipation
c. aplastic enema
B
Most life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the:
a. central nervous system
b. liver & kidney system
c. bronchial smooth muscle
d. cardiovascular and respiratory system
e. gastrointestinal tract
D
The emergency treatment of patients with congestive heart failure
a. digitalis glycoside d. vasodilators
b. bed rest e. diuretics
c. inotropic agents
C
The responses of which of the following drug should be monitored when it is use simultaneously with
propranolol?
a. digoxin c. chlorothiazide
b. quinidine d. insulin
D
Warfarin anticoagulation is used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Each the following medications increases the
anticoagulant effect of warfarin, except:
a. cimetedine d. vitamin K
b. quinidine e. none of the above
c. phenylbutazone
D
Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital
a. nosocomial d. superinfection
b. superficial infection e. hirsutism
c. secondary infection
A
The action of which of the following drugs will most likely to be impaired by concurrent administration of
tetracycline?
a. chloramphenicol d. erythromycin
b. sulfanomide e. penicillin
c. lincomycin
E
A child shows evidence of poor growth, night blindness, dryness of the conjunctive kerationization of the cornea
and a dry scaly skin. Which preparation is indicated for therapy?
a. calciferol d. thiamine
b. dried yeast e. pantothenic acid
c. vitamin A
C
Acetaminophen has limited value in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis because
a. it frequently produces gastric irritation and bleeding
b. it is not potent enough as an analgesic
c. chronic usage may lead to renal damage
d. it lacks anti-inflammatory properties
e. it may cause methemoglobinemia
D
Drugs to be avoided by a Parkinson patient include all of the following except:
a. reserpine d. chlorpromazine
b. trihexyphenidyl e. pyridoxine
c. physostigmine
B
Cretinism is the result of a metabolic disturbance related to
a. hypothyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism e. hyperfuncation of anterior pituitary
c. hypoparathyroidism
A
Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children:
a. one month in utero and three years
b. six month in utero and eight years
c. birth and ten years
d. one and half years
B
Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly?
a. crowded teeth d. micrognathia
b. large tongue e. echma
c. hypoglycemia
B
A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increase pulse rate, fine skin and hair,
and loss body weight. He is probably suffering from
a. diabetes d. hypothyroidism
b. hyperpituitarism e. hyperthyroidism
c. hyperparathyroidism
E
Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase are useful for patients with:
a. myocardial infarction d. angina pectoris
b. hypertension e. arrhythmia
c. congestive heart fail
A
The drug of choice in the treatment of arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication
a. phenylephrine d. methyldopa
b. phenytoin e. clonidine
c. diuretics
B
Deficiency of Vitamin B12 in the body leads to:
a. hemolytic anemia, anoxeria, loss weight
b. mlicromatic anemia, los appetite
c. megaloblastic anemia,subacute combined degeneration and epithelial tissue abnormality
d. hyperthropy of skin, burning sensation of palm and sole
C
The most commonly used diuretic incombination with antyhypertensives
a. hydrochlorothiazide c. ethacrynic acid
b. furosemide d. am iloride
A
A 48 year old man with a history of major depressive disorder has had a recurrence. His doctor treated him with a
standard dose of nortriptyline for 4 weeks without response. His blood level of nortriptyline is reported to be 30
mg/mL. His doctor may do which of the following?
a. continue the same treatment, as the clinical response is often delayed
b. switch to lithium
c. decrease the dose of nortriptyline
d. increase the dose of nortriptyline
A
Second line anti-tuberculosis drugs are the following, except:
a. ethionamide, cycloserine, pas
b. kanamycin, viomycin,capreomycin
c. pza,streptomycin,ethambutol
d. none of the above
C
Ranitide (Zantac) is effective in treating duodenal ulcer because it;
a. strengthens the productive coating in the intestinal wall
b. is an agonist at H2 receptor and therefore reduce pepsin
c. blocks histamine stimulation of gastric acid secretion by H2 blocker
d. none of the above
C
Inflammation in the inner-membraneous lining of the heart usually caused by bacteria and fungi
a. infective endocarditis c. congestive heart failure
b. angina pectoris d. none of the above
A
Methotrexate is used as an antineoplastic agent and also used for the treatment of
a. hyperuremia c. goiter
b. arthritis d. none of the above
B
The following are alkanizing potassium salts, Except:
a. potassium citrate c. potassium chloride
b. potassium acetate d. potassium gluconate
C
Which analgesic is useful for patients with myocardial infarction?
a. mefenamic acid d. aspirin
b. acetaminophen e. meperidine
c. morphine
D
Mode of transmission of gastrointestinal infection
a. dust
b. consumption of contaminated food and water
c. aerosolize droplets
d. mosquito bite
B
Throbbing headache is characteristically produced by which of the following drugs?
a. procainamide d. glyceryl trinitrate
b. propranolol e. nifedipine
c. verapamil
D
Active listening includes the following tasks:
a. focusing on what the other person says
b. assessing the way the other communicates
c. conveying an open, relaxed and unhurried attitude
d. all of the above
D
What information should be documented regarding a suspected medication allergy?
a. the date or time the reaction occurred
b. the intervention performed to manage the reactions
c. name and description of causative agent
d. all of the above
D
Conversation regarding specific patient information and general health care issues, discussions, and debates
must not take place in the following areas, except:
a. counseling area c. hallways
b. public areas d. elevators
A
The following provide health care services and perform tasks under the direction of the physician, except:
a. cytotechnologist c. medical technologist
b. clinical pharmacist d. occupational therapist
B
Patient-focused practice area
a. outpatient clinic c. geriatrics and long term care
b. community pharmacies d. patient's home
C
As a health care team, the pharmacist provide drug information to physicians and other health professionals
aimed at
a. selecting the most appropriate therapeutic agents for drug therapy
b. providing needed drugs and supplies
c. providing drug information to the physician
d. provide in-service education informally on rounds
A
Hospital pharmacists maintain medication profiles for in-patients and out-patients and use these to
a. Define the therapeutic goals and endpoints of drug therapy
b. Check for drug sensitiveness and interactions
c. Reflect the methods for drug administration
d. all of the above
B
Chronic diseases diagnosed and stabilized by physician and maintenance care is provided by the pharmacist:
a. Hypertension and Congestive Heart Failure
b. Diabetes and Angina
c. Mental health disorders and psoriasis
d. All of the above
D
Non-compliance to therapeutic regimens may result in the ff. except:
a. additional diagnostic evaluation
b. prevention of disease/symptoms
c. hospitalization
d. unnecessary multiple regimens
B
Are unwanted pharmacological effects associated with medication
a. adverse drug reaction c. toxidrome
b. side effects d. all of the above
A
Pale red blood cells resulting from decreased hemoglobin content occurs in following conditions, except:
a. vitamin B12 deficiency c. Microcytic anemia
b. Thalassemia d. iron deficiency anemia
A
Tetracycline is contraindicated for children because:
a. it causes discoloration of teeth c. both of the above
b. severe gastric disturbance d. none of the above
C
The purpose of patient-focused services is to improve patient's quality of life. The outcome include the following,
except:
a. provide drug information
b. cure of the disease
c. prevention of disease
d. elimination or reduction of symptoms
A
Requirements in order to properly implement the philosophy of pharmaceutical care, except:
a. basic knowledge of laboratory test and results
b. a good understanding of disease process
c. provision of drug information
d. therapeutic planning skills
A
Interpret the drug orders from the chart:
a. nurse c. phycisian
b. pharmacist d. all of the above
B
Associated with intense marrow erythropoitic acticity
a. Basophilic stippling c. Nucleated RBCs C
b. Heinz bodies d. Schistocytes
C
Its increase is strongly correlated with coronary artery disease
a. Tryglicerides c. Low density lipoprotein
b. High density lipoprotein d. Lipids
C
Proteinuria occurs with many conditions such as:
a. renal disease and bladder infection
b. multiple myeloma
c. diabetes mellitus
d. diabetes insipidus
A
Glucosuria usually indicates the presence of:
a. Diabetes mellitus c. Multiple myeloma
b. Diabetes myeloma d. Acute hepatitis
A
Alkaline phosphatase below normal value indicates
a. bone fracture
b. liver inflammation
c. hypothyroidism and growth retardation
d. bile duct obstruction
C
Situation wherein there is an increase in total bilirubin; direct bilirubin is usually normal or slightly elevated and
urine color is normal and no bilirubin is found in the urine;
a. Biliary stone c. Hemolysis
b. Cirrhosis d. Iron deficiency anemias
C
When albumin level is above normal, it indicates:
a. Neoplastic disease c. Dehydration and shock
b. Hepatic insufficiency d. Malnutrition
C
It provides basic information regarding renal function, urinary tract disease and the presence of certain systemic
diseases:
a. Creatinine clearance c. Urinalysis
b. Blood urea nitrogen d. Renal function tests
C
Specific gravity of urine is elevated in the following conditions, except:
a. diabetes insipidus c. nephrosis
b. diabetes mellitus d. all of the above
A
Kenoturia usually indicates uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, but it may also occur with:
a. Systemic bleeding disorder
b. Gout
c. Trauma and tumor
d. Starvation and zero low carbohydrate diets
D
Above normal level of uric acid indicates
a. Urinary tract infection c. Acute hepatitis
b. Urethral contamination d. Gout
D
Below normal level of uric acid indicates
a. Urethral contamination c. Gout
b. Urinary tract infection d. Cystitis
D
It plays a dominant role in immunologic activity and appear to produce antibodies
a. Neutrophils c. Monocytes
b. Basophils d. Lymphocytes
D
Derived from the bone marrow, it provides humoral immunity and produce antibodies
a. Leucocytes c. T lymphocytes
b. Monocytes d. B lymphocytes
D
Consists of the hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count, WBC count, mean cell volume, mean cell
hemoglobin and mean cell hemoglobin count
a. Red blood cell inclusions c. Complete blood count
b. Blood smear d. Burr cells
C
When Blood Urea Nitrogen is above the normal values, it indicates the following conditions, except:
a. Liver disease c. Gastrointestinal bleeding
b. Renal disease d. Dehydration
A
This refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, regardless of the dose required to produce the effect
a. drug potency c. drug threshold
b. drug efficacy d. drug response
B
Refers to the likehood that the study results can be useful for clinical decision making:
a. reasoning c. evaluative
b. validity d. applicability
D
This occurs whenever the combined effect of two drugs with different sites of activity is greater than the algebraic
sum of their independent effects:
a. summation c. potentiation
b. synergism d. heterergic
B
Primary sources of drug information, except:
a. Medical Journals c. Pharmacy and Pharmacology Journals
b. The Medical Letter d. none of the above
B
MAO enzymes inactivates:
a. adrenaline c. serotonin
b. noradrenaline d. all of the above
D
Kernicterus is a drug induced disorder that may occur in the neonate following therapy with which of the following
drugs?
a. isoniazid c. phenytoin
b. sulfisoxazole d. gentamicin
B
Drugs capable of inducing hemolysis, except:
a. arsenicals c. chlorampenicol
b. aspirin d. peobenecid
A
Which of the following is the last step in the monitoring prcess:
a. assess the response to therapy
b. monitor the response to therapy
c. set therapeutic goals
d. integrate the monitoring plan
A
Which of the following is the most appropriate source of information regarding questions of fact such as usual
dosage regimens?
a. a colleague
b. drug manufacturer
c. an on-line search of the published literature
d. a standard pharmacy textbook
D
Secondary and tertiary literature consist of the following, except:
a. compiled databases
b. review articles published in journals
c. textbooks
d. none of the above
D