PUBH 400 Exam 3

What are the four main functions of the liver?

Metabolism, detoxification, protein synthesis, and bile production.

Which blood vessel supplies the liver with nutrient-rich, low-oxygen blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen?

The hepatic portal vein.

Which blood vessel supplies the liver with oxygen-rich blood?

The hepatic artery.

What three structures make up the portal triad in the liver?

Hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and bile duct.

What are the four common types of liver injury?

Alcoholic liver disease, viral hepatitis, fatty liver disease, and drug-induced liver injury.

What is the primary route of transmission for Hepatitis A?

Fecal-oral route.

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A?

15 to 50 days.

Does Hepatitis A infection lead to chronic liver disease or a carrier state?

No.

What type of virus is Hepatitis B?

DNA virus.

What are the routes of transmission for Hepatitis B?

Blood, sexual contact, and from mother to child.

What percentage of Hepatitis B infections result in chronic liver disease?

5-10%.

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B?

30 to 180 days.

The presence of which antigen in the blood indicates an active Hepatitis B infection?

HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen).

What type of virus is Hepatitis C?

RNA virus.

What is the primary route of transmission for Hepatitis C?

Blood-to-blood contact.

What percentage of Hepatitis C infections lead to a chronic carrier state?

75-85%.

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis C?

2 weeks to 6 months.

What small, defective RNA virus can only infect persons who are already infected with Hepatitis B?

Hepatitis D virus.

What is the primary route of transmission for Hepatitis E?

Fecal-oral route.

The accumulation of fat in the liver secondary to injury is known as?

Steatosis.

What are the three progressive stages of alcoholic liver disease?

Fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis.

What is the most advanced stage of alcoholic liver disease, characterized by diffuse scarring?

Cirrhosis.

A major complication of cirrhosis is?

Portal hypertension.

In patients with cirrhosis, distended esophageal veins that are at risk of fatal hemorrhage are called?

Esophageal varices.

What is the term for the inflammation of the gallbladder, often associated with gallstones?

Cholecystitis.

What are the two main functions of the pancreas?

Endocrine (insulin and glucagon secretion) and exocrine (digestive enzyme secretion).

The endocrine function of the pancreas involves clusters of cells called?

Islets of Langerhans.

Which cells in the pancreatic islets secrete insulin?

Beta cells.

Which cells in the pancreatic islets secrete glucagon?

Alpha cells.

What is the primary pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis?

Enzyme activation within the pancreas.

What are two major predisposing factors for acute pancreatitis?

Gallstones and chronic and excessive alcohol consumption.

Which type of diabetes mellitus is characterized by an insulin deficiency due to destruction of pancreatic islets?

Type 1 diabetes.

Which type of diabetes mellitus is characterized by an inadequate response of tissues to insulin?

Type 2 diabetes.

A major complication of Type 1 diabetes is?

Diabetic ketoacidosis.

A major complication of Type 2 diabetes is?

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state.

What is the usual age of onset for Type 1 diabetes?

Childhood or adolescence.

What are the typical plasma insulin levels in a person with Type 2 diabetes?

Normal or elevated.

What are the four main components of metabolic syndrome?

Abdominal obesity, dyslipidemia, hypertension, and insulin resistance.

What measurement serves as an index of long-term control of hyperglycemia?

Hemoglobin A1c.

What is the term for inflammation of the gums due to bacterial accumulation around the teeth?

Gingivitis.

What condition occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to open properly?

Achalasia.

What small, curved, gram-negative organisms colonize the gastric mucosa and are a common cause of chronic gastritis?

Helicobacter pylori.

What are the three major complications of a peptic ulcer?

Hemorrhage, perforation, and obstruction.

What is the term for varicose veins of the hemorrhoidal venous plexus that drains the rectum and anus?

Hemorrhoids

What is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging called?

Bulimia nervosa

What are the three layers of the meninges, from outermost to innermost?

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

What type of muscle paralysis is characterized by the destruction of motor neurons, loss of reflex arc, and low muscle tone?

Flaccid paralysis

What is the term for a neural tube defect resulting from the failure of the brain and cranial cavity to develop?

Anencephaly

What is the term for a congenital or acquired condition characterized by the accumulation of excess cerebrospinal fluid?

Hydrocephalus

What is the most common type of stroke, caused by thrombosis of a cerebral artery narrowed by arteriosclerosis?

Cerebral thrombosis (ischemic stroke)

What is a stroke caused by a rupture of a cerebral artery, often in a person with hypertension, known as?

Cerebral hemorrhage (hemorrhagic stroke)

What are brief episodes of neurologic dysfunction that resolve on their own, often from embolization from a carotid artery plaque called?

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

What disease is caused by a small, abnormal protein particle (prion) and is related to 'mad cow disease'?

Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

What are the two characteristic histologic features of Alzheimer disease found in the brain?

Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques

What autoimmune disease is characterized by random foci of demyelination in the central nervous system?

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

What is Parkinson disease characterized by a deficiency of which neurotransmitter?

Dopamine

What progressive hereditary autosomal dominant disease is caused by too many CAG triplet repeats?

Huntington disease

What is the term for a fracture where the bone is shattered into many pieces?

Comminuted fracture

What is the term for a fracture where the overlying skin is broken, creating a potential for infection?

Compound fracture

What is the term for an infection of the bone and adjacent marrow cavity, usually caused by bacteria?

Osteomyelitis

What metabolic bone disease is characterized by generalized thinning and demineralization of the skeleton?

Osteoporosis

What autoimmune disease is characterized by autoantibodies directed against an individual's own tissues?

Rheumatoid arthritis

What type of arthritis is known as a 'wear and tear' degenerative condition?

Osteoarthritis

Gout is a disorder of what metabolism?

Purine metabolism

What autoimmune disease is characterized by abnormal fatigability of voluntary muscles due to autoantibodies?

Myasthenia gravis

What is the definition of cholecystitis?

Inflammation of the gallbladder

What is the definition of diverticulitis?

Inflammation of diverticula in the colon

What is the definition of appendicitis?

Inflammation of the appendix