Anatomy Lecture Review – Organs, Skeletal System & Articulations

Flashcards cover major concepts from the provided anatomy lecture slides—including respiratory, digestive, integumentary, reproductive, skeletal, and articulation topics—formatted as Question & Answer pairs for exam review.

List the three successive branches of the bronchial tree in the right lung, starting from the trachea.

Right main bronchus → right lobar bronchus → right segmental bronchus.

Which organ connects the larynx to the primary bronchi?

The trachea.

Which salivary gland is located anterior and inferior to the ear?

Parotid salivary gland.

Name the three pairs of major salivary glands.

Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands.

Which GI tract organ is immediately distal to the esophagus?

The stomach.

What are the three segments of the small intestine in order?

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum.

Which accessory digestive organ stores bile?

The gallbladder.

What muscle causes hair to stand on end (goose-bumps)?

Arrector pili muscle.

Name the two major layers of the dermis.

Papillary layer and reticular layer.

Which gland type secretes watery sweat directly onto the skin surface?

Merocrine (eccrine) sweat gland.

Which female reproductive structure is the site of fertilization?

The uterine (fallopian) tube.

Which female organ houses the developing embryo/fetus?

The uterus.

What is the distal opening of the female urethra called?

External urethral orifice.

Name the male reproductive duct that stores and matures sperm.

Epididymis.

Which gland encircles the male urethra just inferior to the bladder?

Prostate gland.

What is the collective term for the skin covering the testes?

Scrotum.

List two supportive functions of cartilage.

Supports soft tissues and provides a model for bone development.

Which cartilage type forms the epiphyseal plate?

Hyaline cartilage.

Name the primary minerals stored in bone.

Calcium and phosphate.

Define hemopoiesis.

The production of blood cells within red bone marrow.

Give an example of a flat bone.

Examples include the frontal bone, parietal bone, sternum, or ribs.

Which region of a long bone contains the medullary cavity?

The diaphysis (shaft).

What type of bone tissue fills the epiphyses of long bones?

Spongy (cancellous) bone containing red marrow.

Which membrane lines the medullary cavity?

Endosteum.

Name the bone cell that forms new bone matrix.

Osteoblast.

Which bone cell performs bone resorption?

Osteoclast.

What inorganic material gives bone its hardness?

Hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate crystals).

What is the basic structural unit of compact bone?

The osteon (Haversian system).

Intramembranous ossification produces which category of bones?

Flat bones of skull, parts of clavicle, and mandible.

During endochondral ossification, the primary ossification center forms in which region?

The diaphysis of the cartilage model.

Which zone of the epiphyseal plate contains rapidly dividing chondrocytes?

Zone of proliferating cartilage (Zone 2).

What is the term for bone growth in diameter?

Appositional growth (growth in width) at the periosteum.

Define a greenstick fracture.

A partial fracture in which one side of the bone breaks and the other side bends; common in children.

What is the first step of fracture repair?

Formation of a fracture hematoma.

Which bone marking is a large, rough projection for tendon attachment on the femur?

Trochanter (greater or lesser).

What name is given to a smooth, rounded articular process?

Condyle.

State one major function of the axial skeleton.

Protects vital organs such as the brain, spinal cord, and thoracic organs.

How many cranial bones form the skull?

Eight cranial bones.

Name the only movable bone of the skull.

Mandible.

What bone does not articulate with any other bone?

Hyoid bone.

Which vertebra is known as the atlas?

C1 – it supports the skull and lacks a body.

The dens is a feature of which vertebra?

Axis (C2).

How many pairs of true ribs are there?

Seven pairs (ribs 1–7).

What type of cartilage connects ribs 1-7 to the sternum?

Costal (hyaline) cartilage.

Name the two bones of the pectoral girdle.

Clavicle and scapula.

Which bone’s acromial end articulates with the scapula?

Clavicle.

What depression on the scapula articulates with the humeral head?

Glenoid cavity (fossa).

Which bone is lateral in the forearm?

Radius.

How many carpal bones form the wrist?

Eight carpal bones.

Which three bones make up each os coxae?

Ilium, ischium, and pubis.

State one difference between male and female pelves.

Female pelvis has a wider subpubic angle and greater pelvic inlet for childbirth.

Which bone is the largest and strongest in the body?

Femur.

What bone is lateral to the tibia in the leg?

Fibula.

Name the weight-bearing bone of the leg.

Tibia.

Which tarsal bone forms the heel?

Calcaneus.

List the three arches of the foot.

Medial longitudinal, lateral longitudinal, and transverse arches.

Define a bunion.

Swelling and lateral deviation of the great toe at the first metatarsophalangeal joint.

What is an articulation?

A joint—the point where two bones meet.

Describe the relationship between mobility and stability in joints.

Generally, as mobility increases, stability decreases and vice versa.

Give an example of a fibrous joint.

Suture between skull bones or the gomphosis between tooth and socket.

What type of cartilage is found in a symphysis?

Fibrocartilage (e.g., intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis).

Name the fluid that lubricates synovial joints.

Synovial fluid.

What is a bursa?

A fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between moving structures near a joint.

Define a uniaxial synovial joint and give an example.

A joint permitting movement in one plane; examples include hinge (elbow) and pivot (atlas–axis) joints.

Which synovial joint type allows the greatest range of motion?

Ball-and-socket joint (e.g., shoulder, hip).

Name the movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones.

Flexion.

What is circumduction?

A conical movement combining flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction in succession.

Define pronation.

Rotating the forearm so the palm faces posteriorly (or inferiorly when elbow is flexed).

Which movements occur at the ankle when standing on tip-toes?

Plantar flexion.

Name the ligament inside the hip that carries a small artery to the femoral head.

Ligament of head of femur (ligamentum teres).

What three injuries constitute the ‘unhappy triad’ of the knee?

Torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), torn tibial (medial) collateral ligament, and torn medial meniscus.

Which ligament encircles the head of the radius at the elbow?

Anular ligament.

Name one extracapsular ligament that stabilizes the knee laterally.

Fibular (lateral) collateral ligament.

Which joint is formed by the talus, tibia, and fibula?

Talocrural (ankle) joint.

Identify the three main types of arthritis.

Gouty arthritis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.

What is the main cause of gouty arthritis?

Urate (uric acid) crystal deposition in joints causing inflammation.

Which ossification process begins with a mesenchymal membrane?

Intramembranous ossification.

Differentiate between organic and inorganic components of bone matrix.

Organic (osteoid) provides tensile strength via collagen; inorganic (hydroxyapatite) confers hardness.

What feature distinguishes cervical vertebrae from others?

Presence of transverse foramina and often bifid spinous processes.

Which vertebra has the longest spinous process and is called ‘vertebra prominens’?

C7.

Describe kyphosis.

Exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (‘hunchback’).

What structure in an intervertebral disc can herniate?

Nucleus pulposus.

Which rib classification includes ribs 11 and 12?

Floating ribs (a subset of false ribs).

What is the name of the joint between a tooth and its socket?

Gomphosis (a fibrous joint).

During appositional growth, which cells deposit new bone on the periosteal surface?

Osteoblasts.

Which fracture is characterized by the distal radius being displaced posteriorly?

Colles fracture.

What bone marking term describes a narrow slit-like opening?

Fissure.

Which bony landmark on the temporal bone is the external opening for sound waves?

External acoustic meatus.

What is the function of the nasal conchae?

Increase air turbulence and warm, humidify inhaled air.

Name the space that houses the pituitary gland within the sphenoid bone.

Sella turcica.

Which fetal skull features allow for compression during birth?

Fontanelles (soft spots).

Define scoliosis.

Lateral curvature of the vertebral column.

What is the medical term for ‘swayback’?

Lordosis (exaggerated lumbar curvature).

Which ligament reinforces the temporomandibular joint laterally?

Temporomandibular ligament.

Identify the muscle tendon that runs inside the shoulder joint capsule and can become inflamed with rotator cuff injuries.

Tendon of the long head of biceps brachii.

Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?

Scaphoid.

What mnemonic helps recall the eight carpal bones from lateral to medial, proximal to distal?

"Stop Letting Those People Touch The Cadaver's Hand" (Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform, Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate).

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?

Talus.

Name the movement of the thumb across the palm to touch another finger.

Opposition.

Which structure deepens the acetabulum for stability of the hip joint?

Acetabular labrum.