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2 groups of macronutrients? what do they do?
C,O,H,N,S,P
lipids, sugars, proteins, nucleic acids
K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Na+
stabilize enzymes and ribosomes
long range electrical signaling w/in biofilms
2 groups of micronutrients
inorganic- trace metals, co factors for enzymes - Fe, Se, Mn, Zn, Co, Mo, Ni, Cu
organic - growth factors- amino acids, purines, pyrimidines, vitamins
what is a cofactor? what if cofactor missing?
micronutrient needed for enzyme function.
Enzyme can be made without it but wont function correctly w/o it
2 types energy sources. 2 types of electron sources. 2 types of carbon sources. how many metabolism types total?
Energy
photo
chemo
Electron
litho
organo
Carbon
autotroph = CO2
heterotroph = organic molecules
8 different types
what kind of metabolism for:
cyanobacteria
nonsulfur bacteria
methanogens
sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
most nonphotosynthetic microbes
photolithoautotroph
photoorganoheterotroph
chemolithoautotroph
chemolithoheterotroph
chemoorganoheterotroph
what type and flavor is Columbia (CNA) agar? For what and why?
complex
selective for G+
CNA (Columbia nalidixic acid) inhibits G-
Differential- inclusion of 5% sheep’s blood shows hemolysis
3 (4) types of active transport? which one involves chemically modifying the substance being transported?
simple transport - symport and antiport
ABC transport
Group translocation (chemical modification)
Two types of simple transport? What are they? What is the energy source? example of a symporter? what protein(s) are involved
symport- where a solute and a proton are co-transported in the same direction
lac permease- uptake of lactose
antiport- where a solute and a proton are transported in opposite directions
H+ motive force
1 transmembrane transport protein
sodium-proton: antiporter or symporter? what is it transporting?
lac permease: antiporter or symporter? what is it transporting?
glucose: 2 ways?
antiport, pumping out sodium
symport, pumping in lactose
facilitated diffusion via permease, or active group transport where it’s phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate
3 ways group translocation (phosphotransferase system) is different from other the 2 active transports?
Transported substance is chemically modified (phosphorylated) during transport process
energy rich organic compound called PEP (phophoenolpyruvate) drives the transport instead of proton motive force or ATP
many different proteins (enzymes) involved in the process
ABC transport: 3 components? 2 steps? what does ABC stand for?
1a. substrate binding protein,
1b transmembrane transporter,
1c ATP-hydrolyzing protein
2a substrate binding protein binds substrate
2b binding protein interacts 2/ transmembrane component to transport via ATP
ATP-binding cassette
2 reasons agar is a good media? what temps does it melt and solidify
most microbes can’t digest it
it’s melting temp is much higher than its solidifying temp, so it remains solid at room temp
melt at 90F, harden at 40
4 stages of microbe growth curve. what happens at each?
lag: adjusting to new medium. synthesizing enzyme and cofactors for new environment
exponential (log) : doubling at regular intervals, balanced growth (cell components made at constant rates)
stationary : growth = death, nutrient limitation
decline-:cell death, “viable not culturable”= stress response, returns to norm if conditions improved
Growth equation and variables
Nn = N0 ×2n
Nn = cell # after n generations
N0 = initial cell #
n= # of generations
what is generation time (g)?
what is growth rate (k)?
what is n?
what is its relationships to k: k = x = x? g = x = x?
population takes 6h to double once, what’s generation time?
relationship b/t Nn and N0 ?
time per generation t/n, or “time to double”
# of generations per unit of time (n/t)
n = # of generations
4a. k = n/t = 1/g
4b. g = t/n = 1/k
g = 6/1
Larger difference b/t Nt and N0 = higher n
cell concentration equation for viable count (dilute and plate)? what does N represent? when can you stop diluting?
concentration (cells/mL)= N (dilution factor) / mL plated
N = CFU (how many colonies are counted on the plate)
want total CFU to be between 25-250 cells for statistical relevance
Chlamydomonas nivalis: what kind of temp, what is it?
psychrophile
red snow algae from carotenoids
3 kinds of organisms concerning external acidity? example organism for acidophile and alkaliphile? what pH must all cells keep internally and why?
acidophile- less that pH 5
picrophilus- most acidophilic
neutrophile- pH 5.5-8
alkaliphile- 8+
Bacillus Firmus
5-9
ideal cardinal temps for the 5 temp categories? max for methanopyrus?
psychro= 0-20, 15C optimum
psychrotolerant= 0-40 20-40C optimum
mesophile= 8-48C, 20-40C optimum
thermophile = 45-80C, 55-65C optimum
hyperthermophile= 55-?C, 80-?C
methanopyrus 122C max
What kind of organism is Thermus aquaticus? What is it used for industrially and why?
hyperthermophile
its DNA polymerase is used to automate repetitive steps of PCR
hyperthermophile enzymes are generally more stable than mesophiles
what is water activity?
2 factors that impact water activity?
water activity equation and what is the range of values?
water availability
water quantity - how dry or wet the environment is
solute concentration- how much salt, sugar, other is dissolved in the environment’s water
aw = (vapor pressure of solution) / (vapor pressure water)
Values of aw vary between 0 (no free water) and 1 (pure water)
what they like?:
osmophile
xerophile
halotolerant
halophile
extreme halophile
what is staph aureus and halobacterium salinarum?
Osmophile- live in high solute concentrations
Xerophile- live in dry environments
Halotolerant- tolerate salt but grow best w/o
Halophile- salt lover (0-12%) - need it
Extreme halophile (15-30%)
S. aureus = halotolerant
halobacterium salinarum = extreme halophile
aerobe
facultative anaerobe
microaerophile
anaerobe
aerotolerant
what oxygen levels do they prefer in their environments? where grow?
obligate Aerobe- can respire O2, requires O2 at atmospheric conditions)
only in oxic zone
facultative anaerobe- grow best in oxygen but not required
best in oxic zone, throughout the tube
microaerophile- require O2 but at lower than atmospheric levels (microoxic conditions)
just below the oxic zone, some in oxic zone
obligate Anaerobe- cannot respire O2, strict and won’t grow in its presence)
only towards bottom of tube
aerotolerant- will grow in its presence, growth equal w/ or w/o
equal levels of growth throughout a tube
regarding oxygen tolerance, what kind of organisms are methanogens and clostridium?
obligate anaerobes
aerotolerant
antiseptic v. chemotherapy v. antimicrobial
antiseptic = chemical that kills microbes ON LIVING TISSUE to prevent infection
chemotherapy = chemicals that kill microbes WITHIN LIVING TISSUE
antimicrobial = agents that are cidal (kill) or static (prevent growth)
what is decimal reduction time (D)? what percentage loss? how does population size affect it?
time required to achieve a 1-log (1 order of magnitude) reduction in the survival fraction (100% down to 10%) when heating at a steady temp
population has been reduced by 90%,
this value is Independent of starting cell #
what is thermal death time? how does population size affect it?
time it takes to kill all organisms at a given heat
more cells = longer to kill
4 low-resistance-to-chemical pathogens and 2 high resistance ?
yeast, protozoa, vegetative gram+, enveloped viruses
endospores, prions (isolates from bacteria)
5 intermediately resistant-to-chemicals pathogens?
cysts/oocysts
mycobacteria
non-enveloped viruses
filamentous fungi
veg gram-
what type of microbes are resistant to freezing, 2 food spoilage organisms?
psychrophiles
Camplybacter jejuni- chicken, has become resistant.
Listeria monocytogenes
who invented pasteurization and for what? what is the process? what is the purpose of it? what is the indicator that it has succeeded?
louis pasteur for wine spoilage fermenters
briefly heat to 60C
kills pathogens and fermenters
alkaline phosphatase test- naturally in milk, if not present, heat was high enough
what microbe is resistant to triclosan?
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
who invented the chemical control phenol and for what? what is the mechanism of action?
Joseph Lister- used carbolic acid during surgery to sterilize instruments and hands
denatures proteins, disrupts membranes
mechanism of halogens on microbes? 2 examples? what are they used for?
oxidize cell components
chlorine (bleach) - kills everything EXCEPT spores
iodine- pre surgery
heavy metal chemicals (silver, mercury, arsenic,zinc, copper): -cidal? mechanism of action? which are still used? how do the current ones work?
bacteriostatic, + ions disrupt CW, respiration, and DNA
silver nitrate and silver sulfadiazine
make microbe produce Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS)
Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS): where do they come from? mechanism of action?
chemicals containing heavy metals silver nitrate or silver sulfadiazine induce microbes to make ROS like peroxide internally
oxidative damage to proteins, DNA, and lipids
what kind of chemical is a Quaternary Ammonium Compound (QAC)? Structure? mechanism of action on microbes? why are they preferred? what is amphipathic mean?
cationic detergent
+ charged head = quaternary nitrogen group
disrupts membranes
stable and nontoxic compared to other detergents
hydrophilic + head, hydrophobic tail
aldehydes: what kind of agent/mechanism of action? what used on?
alkylating agent →crosslinking proteins and nucleic acids, disrupts metabolism and reproduction
special bc its sporicidal, but also kills bacteria, fungi, spores/endospores, and viruses
ethylene oxide: what kind of agent is it and mechanism of action? what does it kill? what 2 things is it used to sterilize?
alkylating agent → disrupts cell metabolism and reproduction
microbicidal, sporicidal
packaged items and heat sensitive material
COE2-2hexyl: what is it? mech of action? why special?
broad spectrum synthetic antimicrobials (chemotherapeutic agents)
breaks down bacterial CM
idoesn’t lead to resistance
when does staph aureus pneumonia happen
tends to follow viral infections, bacteria already on the body
staph aureus food poisoning: cause, how fast?
intoxication from exotoxin aureus secretes, not infection
fast 2-6 hours
scalded skin syndrome: what cause what is it?
staph aureus exotoxin causes baby skin to peel
toxic shock syndrome: whhat is it and what cause?
staph aureus secretes more exotoxin TSST-1 in anaerobic conditions when using absorbent tampons
MRSA: what cause, what type of infection
methicillin resistant staph aureus
nosocomial infection (acquired in hospital)
pseudomembraneous enterocolitis: what is it what causes it?
staph aureus overgrowth in bowels
prolonged antibiotic therapy cuts down normal intestine flora
folliculitis: what is it what causes it?
small red bumps develop localized to hair follicles
staph aureus
furuncle: what is it what causes it?
a boil, hair follicle infection also involving surrounding tissue, penetrates into subcutaneous
staph aureus
carbuncle: what is it what causes it?
cluster of boils, penetrates deeper to subcutaneous fat
staph aureus
3 general traits that make staph aureus more pathogenic. why unique among staph?
has capsule,
thick CW,
has enzymes/toxins
only clinically significant staph that is coagulase +
capsule: what does it do and how?
a). protects from immune system → pathogenicity
b). prevents from being engulfed by WBCs which enables bacteria to attach to surfaces
Protein A: what is it who has it?
binds antibodies to keep WBCs from recognizing and phaging
staph aureus
hyaluronidase: what is it who has it?
enzyme breaks down hyaluronic acid which binds connective fibers, allows staph aureus and strep a to spread into other parts of the tissues
DNase: what is it who has it
enzyme breaks down DNA, especially in NETs (neutrophil extracellular traps). (disrupts immune system
staph aureus
Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs): what can destroy it?
nets made of DNA released by neutrophils (immune cells) to capture and kill pathogens
staph aureus
lipase: what is it who has it?
enzyme breaks down lipids in the skin, nutrients released, makes room for staph aureus growth
beta-lactamase: what is it who has it?
enzyme breaks down penicillins
staph aureus (penicillin resistant)
exfoliatins: what is it who has it
exotoxin causes skin sloughing
staph aureus
leukocidins: what is it who has it?
kills WBCs
staph aureus
superantigens: what is it, what 2 things does it do, who has it? 2 examples?
exotoxin that causes large scale t-cell activation:
prevent targeted immune response, can cause toxic shock
TSST-1 and enterotoxins
TSST-1: what 2 things is it, who makes it?
exotoxin and superantigen, causes toxic shock
staph aureus
enterotoxins: what is it, what do they cause, who makes it?
exotoxins that act in gut
staph food poisoning, enterocolitis
staph aureus
what reaction does coagulase perform?
converts fibrinogen to fibrin
strep throat: what is it what causes it?
(Group A) strep pyogenes
tonsilitis: what is it what causes it?
sudden severe sore throat, fever, and swollen tonsils with white patches.
(group A) strep pyogenes
Erysipelas: what is it what causes it?
contagious skin infection of the upper dermis and lymphatic vessels
(group A) strep pyogenes
impetigo: what is it what causes it?
skin infection causes red sores mainly children; extremities, nose and mouth
(group A) strep pyogenes
septicemia: what is it what causes it?
extreme response to an infection
group a strep and strep pneumoniae
strep deadly pneumonia: what is it what causes it?
rare, after viral infections, often fatal
(group A) strep pyogenes
necrotizing faciitis: what is it what causes it?
infection that destroys fat muscle and skin tissue
group A strep (strep pyogenes)
6 enzymes/toxins that make strep pyogenes (group A) pathogenic?
streptolysin S
streptolysin O
erythrogenic toxin
streptokinase/fibronolysin
hyaluronidase
exotoxins
2 strep pyogenes (group A) hemolysins: oxygen stability, aerobic v anaerobic conditions?
Streptolysin O (not normally seen) = oxygen labile, only makes hemolysin if anaerobic
Streptolysin S = oxygen stable, b hemolysis under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
both are b hemolytic when active
streptolysin S: what is it who makes it what conditions?
Streptolysin S = oxygen stable, hemolysis under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
Group A strep (pyogenes)
streptolysin O: what is it who makes it what conditions?
oxygen labile hemolysins made only under anaerobic conditions
Group A strep (pyogenes)
erythrogenic toxin: what is it what makes it?
toxin that causes rash of scarlet fever
(group A strep) strep pyogenes
scarlet fever: what is it what causes it
scarlet rash and white strawberry tongue
group A strep (strep pyogenes)
streptokinase/fibrinolysin: what is it what makes it?
breaks down fibers to help spread
strep pyogenes (group A)
hyaluronidase: what is it what makes it?
breaks down hyaluronic acid that connects fibers, helps spread
strep pyogenes (group A)
bacitracin disk test: what is positive, what’s it testing for
bacitracin disk on plate, no growth around if susceptible (+)
differentiates strep pyogenes bc group A is sensitive to bacitracin
2 post-streptococcal diseases? what causes?
rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
group A strep (strep pyogenes)
rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis: what type of disease and what causes them? mech of action?
post-streptococcal diseases
group A strep (strep pyogenes)
group A has antigen resembles heart valve and kidney, causing antibodies to cross react w/ heart and glomerulus (kidney)
necrotizing fasciitis: what is it what causes it?
infection destroys fat skin and muscle
group a strep (strep pyogenes)
CAMP test: what is it differentiating? how? what does a + result look like and what does it indicate?
used to identify Group B beta strep based on their formation of CAMP, which enlarges B-hemolysis
the microbe being tested streaked at right angle to staph aureus
a CAMP (+) result will look like an enlarged section/arrowhead of B-hemolysis where the 2 streaks meet
meningitis: what is it what causes it?
infection of brain and spinal cord
Group B b-hemolytic strep
2 drugs enterococcus can be resistant to? how to treat enterococcus diseases? what range of temps?
all low susceptibility to penicillin
vancomycin, sometimes (VREs)
susceptible to aminoglycosides
grow in wide range of temps
Bile esculin Test: purpose? how does it work? what does a positive result look like?
separate enterococcus/group d from other groups
Enterococcus hydrolyze esculin to products that react w/ ferric citrate in the agar → produces black iron salts
positive result turns media from yellow to black = Enterococcus or Group D
Strep pneumoniae: morphology, location, metabolism need, lysis
G+ diplococci, lancet-shaped (elongated)
normally oropharyngeal flora
needs increased CO2
7 diseases of streptococcus penumoniae
– a). Most common cause of community acquired
pneumonia
– b). Meningitis
– c). Septicemia
– d). Pericarditis
– e). Pleuritis
– f). Otitis media
– g). sinusitis
strep pneumoniae: catalase, lysis, optochin/p-disc, bile salts, other?
-
alpha hemolysis
optochin/p-disc test sensitive (+)
lysed by bile salts
serological tests
viridans strep: location, pathogenicity
normal flora same as others skin mouth
not normally pathogenic
Outline staph identification
do a coagulase test
coagulase(+) = staph aureus or staph intermedius
do a VP test
aureus = VP (+), intermedius = VP(-)
coagulase(-) = staph epidermidis or staph saprophyticus
do a novobiocin disk
epidermidis is susceptible (+)
saprophyticus is resistant (-)
alpha-hemolytic strep identification pathway:
1. If observe a-hemolysis on blood agar
2.optochin disk test
a. sensitive = strep pneumoniae
b. resistant = viridans strep = strep mutans
beta-hemolytic strep identification pathway:
If observe a-hemolysis on blood agar
CAMP Test
CAMP + = Group B Strep - strep agalactiae
Bacitracin test
sensitive = Group A = strep pyogenes
pathway for gamma hemolytic strep identification
bile esculin test + 6.5% salt test on gamma hemolytic growth
b. resistant bile salt, sensitive 6.5% salt = Group D strep (bovis, equis)
c. resistant for both = Enterococcus
vancomycin test on Enterococcus
a. resistant = VRE
cidal static or cytic and against what gram)
aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
macrolides
quinolones
all antimetabolites
daptomycin
polymixin-b
cidal (G-)
static, broad spectrum + or -
broad spectrum
cidal croad spectrum + or -
static broad spectum + or -
cidal (G+)
G-
Paul Ehrlich is known for what 3 things? why were they important?
trypan red - 1st synthetic chemical compound that could cure infections in living animals
arsphenamine (Compound 606) - replaced dangerous mercury as treatment for syphilis
the term “magic bullet”- selectively targeting of pathogens
trypan red: who made it/when? what did it do? why important?
paul ehrlich (1904)
killed trypanosomes
1st synthetic chemical compound that could cure infections in living animals
arsphenamine (compound 606): who made it/when? what did it do?
Paul ehrlich 1910
arsenic compound treats syphilis
what is Gerhard Domagk known for? why important?
Prontosil (1932) - treats Strep and Staph
1st sulfa drug
Prontosil: who made it/when, what is it for/ what does it do, why important?
Gerhard Domagk (1930)
treats Strep, Staph bc its metabolized into sulfanilamide
1st sulfa drug