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Cognitive-behavioral treatment for panic disorder involves interoceptive conditioning. This type of conditioning may include which of the following strategies?

a. Yelling “stop” whenever an undesirable thought occurs

b. Maintaining a panic diary

c. Focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy

d. Breathing through a thin straw

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Psychology Qualifying Exam

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1

Cognitive-behavioral treatment for panic disorder involves interoceptive conditioning. This type of conditioning may include which of the following strategies?

a. Yelling “stop” whenever an undesirable thought occurs

b. Maintaining a panic diary

c. Focusing on a pleasant experience or fantasy

d. Breathing through a thin straw

d.

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2

The assumption underlying dialectical behavioral therapy (Linehan, 1993) as a treatment modality for borderline personality disorder is that the symptoms of this disorder are caused by:

a. pervasive emotion dysregulation

b. dysfunctional object relations

c. the depressive cognitive triad

d. a lack of response-contingent reinforcement

a.

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3

The revised learned helplessness model proposed by Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy (1989) identifies [blank] as the primary contributing factor for depression.

a. a high rate of self-punishment

b. emotional oversensitivity

c. the depressive cognitive triad

d. hopelessness

d.

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4

Desiree D., age 21, displays several active psychotic symptoms, including persecutory delusions, auditory hallucinations, incoherence, and loosening of associations. Her symptoms began suddenly three months ago, and she has no previous history of similar symptoms. Which of the following is the best diagnosis for her symptoms?

a. Schizophrenia

b. Brief psychotic disorder

c. Schizoaffective disorder

d. Schizophreniform disorder

d.

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5

The prognosis for a child with autism is best if the child:

a. does not have delays in motor development.

b. displays some ability to communicate verbally by age five or six.

c. has one or more savant abilities.

d. does not have a family history of a mental disorder.

b.

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6

The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder for children and adolescents requires the presence of symptoms for at least:

a. six months.

b. twelve months.

c. twenty-four months.

d. thirty-six months.

b.

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7

The DSM-5 diagnosis of bipolar II disorder requires which of the following?

a. One or more manic episodes

b. One or more mixed episodes

c. Manic and major depressive episodes

d. Hypomanic and major depressive episodes

d.

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8

Based on DSM-5 criteria, the diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires which of the following?

a. The onset of symptoms prior to 4 years of age

b. Duration of symptoms of at least 6 months

c. Markedly impaired academic performance

d. Negativistic, hostile, and defiant behavior

b.

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9

According to the catecholamine hypothesis:

a. mania is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

b. depression is due to a deficiency in norepinephrine.

c. mania is due to excessive acetylcholine.

d. depression is due to excessive acetylcholine.

b.

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10

The prognosis for schizophrenia has been linked to several factors. Which of the following is NOT associated with a better prognosis?

a. Acute and late onset of the disorder

b. The presence of a precipitating event

c. Family history of a mood disorder

d. Male gender

d.

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11

The most effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

a. exposure therapy with response prevention.

b. stress management with relaxation training.

c. covert sensitization.

d. stress inoculation training.

a.

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12

A 45-year old woman exhibits several symptoms including autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and nausea following cessation of prolonged and heavy alcohol use. A diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal delirium would be more appropriate than a diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal if the woman also exhibits:

a. psychomotor agitation.

b. tonic-clonic seizures.

c. impaired attention and awareness.

d. tardive dyskinesia.

c.

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13

According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), which of the following result(s) from an "overlearned habit pattern"?

a. Parasuicidal behavior

b. Addictive behavior

c. Hypochondriasis

d. Paraphilias

b.

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14

Children with Tourette syndrome frequently exhibit significant problems in learning. This is most likely attributable to:

a. language disabilities.

b. attention deficits and hyperactivity.

c. lower-than-average IQ.

d. peer and other social problems.

b.

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15

A DSM-5 diagnosis of specific learning disorder requires the individual's academic skills to be substantially below those expected for their:

a. chronological age.

b. mental age.

c. measured intelligence.

d. academic aptitude.

a.

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16

As described in the DSM-5, a manic episode involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and:

a. inflated self-esteem or grandiosity.

b. persistently increased activity or energy.

c. involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences.

d. anxious distress.

b.

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17

Ethel E., age 36, has just been offered a promotion at work. Although she wants the increase in salary and prestige of the new position, she is planning to turn down the job because it will require extensive speaking in front of large groups of employees. Ethel has avoided situations that require her to speak to groups for as long as she can remember because public speaking is a very embarrassing experience for her. Whenever she has to speak in front of others, she is extremely anxious, her heart races, her palms become sweaty, and she becomes preoccupied with the concern that she will forget what she has planned to say. Ethel's symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following disorders?

a. Panic disorder

b. Social anxiety disorder

c. Avoidant personality disorder

d. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

b.

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18

The prevalence rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for boys and girls before puberty. In adolescents and adults:

a. the rates for males and females remain about equal.

b. the rate for females is about 1.5 to 3 times the rate for males.

c. the rate for females is about 4 to 5 times the rate for males.

d. the rate for males is about 2 to 3 times the rate for females.

b.

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19

A psychologist should not assign a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder for the first time if the individual is younger than _____ years of age or older than _____.

a. three; fifteen

b. five; sixteen

c. six; eighteen

d. ten; eighteen

c.

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20

Research outcomes have linked obsessive-compulsive disorder to overactivity in which of the following?

a. Caudate nucleus

b. Hippocampus

c. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

d. Medulla oblongata

a.

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21

A DSM-5 diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that are distressing or cause significant disruption in daily life plus:

a. evidence that symptoms are not associated with a known medical condition.

b. performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.

c. evidence that symptoms are not being feigned or voluntarily produced.

d. excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

d.

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22

In the DSM-5, sleep terror is included:

a. with the sleep-wake disorders as a separate diagnosis.

b. as a type of rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder.

c. as a type of non–rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorder.

d. as a specifier for nightmare disorder.

c.

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23

Drugs that interfere with the breakdown of ____________ are used to treat memory loss and other cognitive problems in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease.

a. norepinephrine

b. cortisol

c. acetylcholine

d. dopamine

c.

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24

The differential diagnosis of major depressive disorder and mild neurocognitive disorder in older adults can be difficult because of the overlap in cognitive symptoms. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that major depressive disorder is the more appropriate diagnosis?

a. The onset of the patient's cognitive symptoms was insidious.

b. The severity of the patient's cognitive symptoms increases in the evening.

c. The patient seems unaware of their cognitive deficits.

d. The patient is uncooperative during cognitive testing.

d.

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25

Rosita R., age 32, maintains systematized paranoid delusions despite a lack of evidence for her beliefs. However, she shows almost no impairment in daily functioning other than some problems that are directly related to her delusions. The symptoms began six months ago shortly after she was fired from her job. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for Rosita is:

a. paranoid schizophrenia.

b. acute stress disorder.

c. conversion disorder.

d. delusional disorder.

d.

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26

A DSM-5 diagnosis of erectile disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately _____ months.

a. two

b. six

c. ten

d. twelve

b.

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27

A better prognosis for schizophrenia is associated with all of the following except:

a. female gender.

b. an early onset of symptoms.

c. a family history of a mood disorder.

d. the presence of a precipitating event.

b.

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28

In the DSM-5, the symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are categorized into three groups. These groups are:

a. destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules.

b. negativistic, defiant, and hostile behavior.

c. deceitfulness/dishonesty, irritability/aggressiveness, and failure to conform to social norms.

d. angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness.

d.

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29

In Berry's bidirectional acculturation model (1993), ____________ is characterized by low involvement in one's own minority culture and in the majority culture.

a. moratorium

b. alienation

c. separation

d. marginalization

d.

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30

Freud described countertransference as the analyst's transference to the patient, which may interfere with the analyst's functioning in therapy. More recently, psychoanalysts have begun to view countertransference as:

a. a detriment to the normal progression of therapy.

b. a potential source of information about the client.

c. an analyst's distortion of the client's behavior.

d. an opportunity for the analyst to respond to the client in an authentic way.

b.

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31

Researchers interested in evaluating the outcomes of psychotherapy distinguish between effectiveness and efficacy research. In contrast to effectiveness research, efficacy research:

a. has better internal validity but limited external validity.

b. has limited internal validity but better external validity.

c. has better internal and external validity.

d. has limited internal and external validity.

a.

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32

Studies have shown that psychotherapy research participants in placebo control groups typically show:

a. greater improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

b. less improvement than those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

c. similar improvement to those in no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

d. no improvement when compared to no-treatment or wait-list control groups.

a.

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33

The belief that a child's misbehavior has one of four goals—i.e., attention, revenge, power, or to display inadequacy—is most consistent with:

a. Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy.

b. Adler's individual psychology.

c. Perls's Gestalt therapy.

d. Mahler's object relations theory.

b.

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34

Asking the "miracle question" is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?

a. Transtheoretical

b. Interpersonal

c. REBT

d. Solution-focused

d.

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35

Solution-focused therapists utilize all of the following interventions except:

a. the miracle question.

b. the exception question.

c. reflective questioning.

d. scaling questions.

c.

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36

For a Gestalt therapist, a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:

a. integrate the present with their past and future.

b. integrate the various aspects of the self.

c. develop a success identity.

d. develop a healthy style of life.

b.

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37

Research on Helms's White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?

a. Reintegration

b. Immersion-emersion

c. Autonomy

d. Integrative awareness

c.

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38

The primary goal of a newly developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently discharged from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community. This is an example of:

a. primary prevention.

b. secondary prevention.

c. tertiary prevention.

d. crisis intervention.

c.

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39

Culturally sensitive approaches to psychotherapy vary from traditional approaches in that these approaches attempt to understand a client's experience of an illness within the client's cultural context. Thus, culturally sensitive approaches are rooted in an ____________ perspective.

a. emic

b. etic

c. emetic

d. endogenous

a.

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40

Margaret Mahler proposed that the development of a sense of self is related to:

a. separation-individuation.

b. projective identification.

c. pseudomutuality.

d. assimilation-accommodation.

a.

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41

Carl Jung believed that a client's transference:

a. is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality.

b. represents mixed feelings toward the therapist.

c. is a form of "acting out."

d. reflects the client's personal and collective unconscious.

d.

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42

Smith, Glass, and Miller's meta-analysis of the psychotherapy outcome research (1980) found that people receiving therapy are "better off" than about _____% of people who need treatment but do not receive it.

a. 45

b. 55

c. 80

d. 95

c.

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43

According to Howard et al.'s phase model (1996), which of the following is most likely to be affected during the first few sessions of psychotherapy?

a. Coping skills

b. Severity of symptoms

c. Maladaptive behaviors

d. Feelings of hopelessness

d.

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44

In client-centered case consultation, the consultant's primary goal is to:

a. help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client.

b. help the consultee identify methods for evaluating their own professional services.

c. help a consultee enhance their skills and knowledge so that the consultee functions more effectively in the future.

d. work collaboratively with the consultee to jointly deliver an appropriate intervention to a client.

a.

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45

In comparing Asian and Asian-American therapy clients to European American clients, researchers frequently point out that the former:

a. tend to prefer a less directive therapeutic approach.

b. are grounded more in the here-and-now than in the past or the future.

c. respond better when goal-setting is delayed.

d. are more likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.

d.

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46

From the perspective of feminist therapy, therapist self-disclosure is:

a. contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role.

b. necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client's participation.

c. a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist.

d. useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.

d.

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47

The first stage in Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model (2001) is:

a. conformity.

b. incorporation.

c. contact.

d. pre-encounter.

d.

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48

Replacing a "failure identity" with a "success identity" is a goal of treatment for practitioners of ____________ therapy.

a. Gestalt

b. reality

c. solution-focused

d. Adlerian

b.

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49

Prochaska and DiClemente's stages of change (transtheoretical) model (1982) predicts that a person in the ____________ stage plans to take action within the next six months that will alter their problematic behavior.

a. action

b. contemplation

c. preparation

d. precontemplation

b.

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50

People in which of the following stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model begin to question their rejection of all aspects of the dominant culture and absolute loyalty to their own culture?

a. Encounter

b. Dissonance

c. Integrative awareness

d. Introspection

d.

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51

A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely:

a. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.

b. work initially with the most differentiated family member.

c. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming "triangulated" into the family system.

d. issue specific "directives" designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.

a.

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52

According to Irvin Yalom, ____________ in group therapy is the analogue of the therapist–client relationship in individual therapy.

a. universality

b. identification

c. cohesiveness

d. alliance

c.

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53

According to Freud's notion of ____________, dreams and slips of the tongue are meaningful goal-directed phenomena.

a. psychic dynamogenesis

b. reciprocal determinism

c. psychic determinism

d. ptyalism

c.

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54

The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family's stability is referred to as ____________ feedback.

a. external

b. internal

c. negative

d. positive

c.

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55

According to research when working with a Black family, it is important to keep in mind that:

a. Black families are predominantly matriarchal.

b. Black husbands are usually less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands are.

c. Black familial roles may be more flexible than White familial roles.

d. Black wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions.

c.

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56

In the context of structural family therapy, the purpose of "reframing" is to:

a. diffuse blame.

b. relabel behaviors.

c. increase specificity.

d. anchor behaviors.

b.

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57

Which of the following statements is an acceptable description of a research participant as per the APA Publication Manual?

a. Non-white participant

b. Physically challenged participant 

c. Participant diagnosed with borderline personality disorder

d. Participant suffering from multiple sclerosis

c.

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58

A psychologist is most likely to have vicarious liability when acting in which of the following capacities?

a. Faculty member

b. Supervisor

c. Mentor

d. Therapist

b.

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59

When serving as an evaluator in a child custody case, a psychologist's primary concern should be:

a. what the child desires.

b. maintaining a position of neutrality.

c. the best interests of the child.

d. the best interests of the person who hired the psychologist.

c.

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60

A practitioner billed her client's insurance company for a completed appointment. The provider did not report that the client cancelled her session with less than 24 hours until the appointment start time. This practice is:

a. illegal and unethical.

b. illegal but ethical.

c. legal and ethical.

d. legal but unethical.

a.

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61

A former client owes you over $600.00 in therapy fees and you are considering using a collection agency to collect the money she owes you. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

a. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines.

b. do so only if you informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner.

c. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date.

d. use a collection agency only as a last resort.

c.

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62

You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months. Leticia is 24 years old and lives with her widowed mother, who is paying for Leticia's therapy. One day, Leticia's mother calls and says she is very concerned about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. Mrs. Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called. Your best course of action in this situation would be to:

a. give Mrs. Lopez the specific advice she has requested.

b. tell Mrs. Lopez to ask Leticia what she (Mrs. Lopez) can do to help her.

c. tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia.

d. suggest that Mrs. Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.

c.

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63

Which of the following best describes APA ethical guidelines regarding sexual intimacy with former therapy clients?

a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances.

b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy.

c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for two years, and after that time, sexual intimacies would only occur in the most unusual of circumstances.

d. Psychologists are not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients.

c.

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64

In most situations, the "holder of the privilege" is:

a. the therapist.

b. the client.

c. the therapist and client jointly.

d. the court.

b.

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65

Dr. Jones, a clinical psychologist, has been seeing Lisa L. in therapy for one month. Dr. Jones considers Lisa to be a very attractive woman and finds himself having sexual fantasies about her. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Jones should:

a. recognize that such attraction is normal but proceed with caution.

b. confess his attraction to Lisa and make it a topic for mutual examination in therapy.

c. recognize that such attraction is inappropriate and refer Lisa to another therapist without explaining the reason to her.

d. continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.

d.

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66

The primary function of the psychology licensing board is best described as:

a. limiting access to the profession.

b. providing sanctions for unethical and illegal behavior on the part of psychologists.

c. protecting the public welfare.

d. accrediting graduate programs in psychology.

c.

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67

Which of the following best describes a true statement based on ethical guidelines for the use of deception in research?

a. Deception is prohibited in all circumstances.

b. Deception is prohibited except when the purpose and design of the study require the use of unobtrusive measures.

c. Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate.

d. Deception is acceptable only when participants have given limited consent after being told about the general nature of the study.

c.

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68

Which of the following statements best describes a researcher's obligations regarding the use of animals in psychological research?

a. Animals should never be used in research when alternative procedures are available.

b. Animals should never be used in research if a research procedure will cause them pain or stress.

c. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative (nonpainful) procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study.

d. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research as long as it is minimized and the animal's life is terminated as soon as is feasible.

c.

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69

Dr. Lopez is the only psychologist in a small town, and his son is enrolled in the town's only elementary school. Dr. Lopez receives a call from his son's teacher, who says she would like to begin therapy with Dr. Lopez. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Lopez should:

a. tell the teacher that he is ethically prohibited from seeing her because to do so would constitute a multiple (dual) relationship.

b. begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and, if necessary, in subsequent sessions.

c. begin therapy with her but seek consultation if any problems arise.

d. begin therapy with her but take special precautions to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained.

b.

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70

Dr. Harold Hanson, a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In terms of his ethical responsibilities, Dr. Hanson:

a. has acted ethically, since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the ethical guidelines.

b. has acted ethically, as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge.

c. has acted ethically, as long as his decision is consistent with the stated promotion policy of the mental health facility.

d. has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures.

d.

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71

A graduate student's dissertation chair, Dr. X, turns out to be of little help, and the student ends up obtaining advice and assistance from an associate professor, Dr. Z. Dr. X does review the dissertation when it is completed, and she is listed as the dissertation chair. Several months later, the student decides to write an article for a professional journal that is based on his dissertation research. In terms of publication credit:

a. Dr. Z should be listed as first author if her contribution was substantial.

b. Dr. Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.

c. Dr. X should be listed as second author since she was the student's official dissertation chair.

d. Dr. X and Dr. Z should both be listed as co-authors.

b.

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72

Dr. Marcos Manzetti uses a "sliding scale" that is based on a client's current income to set his fees for therapy. Dr. Manzetti's practice is:

a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients.

b. explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines.

c. ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably.

d. explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines.

a.

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73

When consulting with a colleague about a "therapeutic impasse" you are having with a therapy client, which statement applies?

a. It is always necessary to advise the client about the consultation.

b. It is necessary to get a signed waiver of confidentiality from the client before discussing any information with the consultant.

c. It is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as only information that is relevant to the impasse is discussed.

d. It is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client's identity is not revealed.

d.

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74

In terms of ethical guidelines, providing pro bono services is:

a. recommended.

b. required.

c. discouraged.

d. prohibited.

a.

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75

Dr. Isaac Ibraham, a licensed psychologist, wants to expand his private practice. When doing so, he should keep in mind that uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy clients are:

a. always ethical.

b. always unethical.

c. unethical only when they provide potential clients with misleading or inaccurate information.

d. unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence.

d.

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76

A student participant in a research study involving matched pairs decides to withdraw from the study. The chief investigator, who is a licensed psychologist, stresses to the student the importance of this data to the study, but the student insists that his data be withdrawn. The investigator should:

a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade.

b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn.

c. tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study.

d. allow the student to withdraw from the study.

d.

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77

Dr. Pavel Petrovich, a licensed psychologist, has been seeing a client in therapy for over fourteen months with no apparent change in the client's symptoms. Dr. Petrovich should:

a. advise the client that he is ethically obligated to terminate therapy.

b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist.

c. search the literature for discussions of similar cases that have been treated and reported by others.

d. continue seeing the client, since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms.

b.

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78

The Buckley Amendment establishes:

a. the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the child's school records.

b. the right of patients to have access to their own hospital records.

c. the requirement for employers to make reasonable modifications to tests for applicants with disabilities.

d. the requirement for schools to provide a free appropriate public education to students with disabilities.

a.

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79

Dr. Carl Carlson is a licensed psychologist and professor in the psychology department at a large university. He is approached by a graduate student, Marla M., age 36, who asks him if he'd like to attend a baseball game on Friday night. Dr. Carlson is divorced and finds Marla to be a very attractive woman. In terms of ethical guidelines, if Dr. Carlson accepts Marla's invitation, he will be:

a. clearly violating ethical guidelines.

b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship.

c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department.

d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university.

c.

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80

A couple brings their ten-year-old son to therapy at the suggestion of his school counselor, who is concerned because the boy has started arguing with his teacher and getting into physical fights with his classmates. After several sessions with the boy and his family, you receive a letter from the school principal requesting information about the boy's condition, and a signed release from the boy's parents is included with the letter. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

a. refuse to release the records to anyone but a licensed psychologist.

b. refuse to release the records to anyone but the boy's parents.

c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school's concerns.

d. release photocopies of your complete file on the boy and his family.

c.

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81

Students in an introductory psychology class are required to participate in one of the university's ongoing research projects. This practice is:

a. ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead.

b. ethical as long as students are free to choose the research project they participate in.

c. ethical as long as informed consent is obtained from students before they participate.

d. clearly unethical.

a.

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82

The 1976 Tarasoff decision established:

a. the right of a parent to inspect and request modifications to their child's school records.

b. a psychologist's duty to protect the intended victim of a therapy client.

c. the 80% rule as a standard for determining the fairness of a selection test or other employment procedure.

d. a psychologist's duty to report suspected or known cases of child abuse.

b.

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83

When a psychologist learns that a colleague has committed an ethical violation, the psychologist:

a. may choose to ignore the violation if it is unlikely to be repeated by the colleague.

b. must report the violation to the Ethics Committee or state/provincial licensing board.

c. may attempt to resolve the situation informally by discussing it with the colleague if it seems appropriate to do so.

d. should contact the colleague's client to ascertain that a violation has actually occurred before taking any further action.

c.

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84

The Ethics Committee is investigating a complaint against a psychologist and requests, by letter, that you provide the Committee with information about the complainant. The complainant is a former client of yours that you stopped seeing 9 years ago. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

a. respond immediately to the Committee's request by supplying the relevant information.

b. respond immediately to the Committee's request, but only provide information you believe is relevant to the complaint.

c. respond to the Committee's request by advising that the information you have is obsolete.

d. respond immediately to the Committee's request but only provide information after verifying that the former client has signed a release of information.

d.

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85

The owner of a small advertising agency refers an employee of the agency to Dr. K., a clinical psychologist, for an evaluation. The owner states that he believes the employee is "too thick-headed" to be a benefit to the company. The owner and Dr. K. agree, prior to the evaluation, that the psychologist will report back to the owner and advise if additional training may improve the employee's job performance. The psychologist prepares a report for the owner after several sessions. The owner consequently decides to terminate the employee based on this report and the employee's previous work history. The employee is very upset with Dr. K. for not informing him about the purpose of the evaluation and proceeds to file a complaint against Dr. K. with the Ethics Committee. The Committee is likely to:

a. dismiss the complaint since complaints can be filed only by the clients of psychologists (in this case, the owner) or by other psychologists.

b. dismiss the complaint since, in this situation, the psychologist could not reveal the purpose of the evaluation to the employee in order to obtain accurate information.

c. dismiss the complaint since the psychologist acted appropriately by providing information only to his client, the owner, who was responsible for informing the employee about the purpose of the evaluation.

d. find that the psychologist acted unethically by not informing the employee about the purpose of the evaluation.

d.

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86

Research on job satisfaction suggests that it:

a. is an enduring disposition that is minimally affected by job changes.

b. is unrelated to being treated equitably by one’s employer.

c. is a poor predictor of longevity.

d. has a positive correlation with turnover.

a.

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87

A group's performance on a(n) ____________ task is limited by the performance of the least skilled or knowledgeable member of the group.

a. additive

b. compensatory

c. disjunctive

d. conjunctive

d.

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88

Expectancy theory predicts that worker motivation depends on several factors including "valence", which refers to:

a. the employee's beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.

b. the employee's beliefs about the inherent (intrinsic) value of the work itself.

c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment.

d. the strength of the effort (versus ability) component of the worker's motivation.

a.

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89

According to Fiedler's contingency model of leadership, high LPC (least preferred coworker) leaders:

a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders.

b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.

c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.

d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.

b.

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90

An organizational psychologist finds that his newly developed selection test has different validity coefficients for male and female applicants and that the difference is statistically significant. This suggests that the test has:

a. incremental validity.

b. discriminant validity.

c. differential validity.

d. convergent validity.

c.

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91

In organizations, the 80% rule is used to determine if:

a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact.

b. a selection procedure is cost effective.

c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance.

d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility.

a.

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92

Lewin's force field theory describes planned change in organizations as involving which of the following stages?

a. Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing

b. Forming, performing, and re-forming

c. Identifying, planning, and acting

d. Setting the stage, problem-solving, and reaching an agreement

a.

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93

The primary purpose of a realistic job preview is to:

a. increase the number of applicants for a job.

b. develop an accurate job description.

c. reduce on-the-job conflicts between managers and employees.

d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover.

d.

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94

Donald Super's ____________ graphically depicts the correspondence between an individual's life roles and life stages.

a. life career rainbow

b. life staircase

c. mandala

d. octagon

a.

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95

A transformational leader uses "framing" in order to:

a. make the organization's goals more meaningful to employees.

b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance.

c. reduce personal biases in decision-making.

d. adapt their leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates.

a.

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96

The best conclusion that can be drawn about the four-day (compressed) workweek is that it has:

a. long-lasting positive effects on attitudes and productivity.

b. long-lasting negative effects on attitudes and productivity.

c. positive effects on attitudes but little or no impact on productivity.

d. positive effects on attitudes initially but, over time, increasingly negative effects on both attitudes and productivity.

c.

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97

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, "employee maturity" is a function of the employee's:

a. stage of career development.

b. personality.

c. skills and willingness to assume responsibility.

d. beliefs about the meaning and value of work.

c.

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98

Assessment centers are most commonly used to:

a. hire and promote clerical workers.

b. hire and promote managers.

c. train semi-skilled and skilled workers.

d. train salespeople.

b.

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99

In organizations, the "paired comparison" technique is used to:

a. evaluate an employee's job performance.

b. make hiring and placement decisions.

c. identify an employee's training needs.

d. determine the appropriate compensation for a job.

a.

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100

The rational-economic model of decision making is based on the assumption that:

a. decision makers place more emphasis on the costs of certain decisions than on other consequences of their decisions.

b. decision makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions.

c. individuals are better than groups at making decisions, especially under stressful conditions.

d. decision makers' knowledge about possible alternatives is always incomplete.

b.

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