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97 Terms

1
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T/F: Most Lymphomas are B-cell lymphomas

  • True

  • False

True

2
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T/F: Mantle field is the name of the traditional field for treating a Hodgkin's lymphoma above the diaphragm

  • True

  • False

True

3
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Treating a mantle field and an abdominal field for HL is know as:

  • Total nodal radiation

  • Total body irradiation

  • Subtotal nodal radiation

  • Total skin electron therapy

Subtotal nodal radiation

4
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According to the World Health Organization there are 61 types of:

  • Hodgkin’s lymphomas

  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas

  • Acute Lymphocytic Leukemias

  • Acute Myelogenous Leukemias

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas

5
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T/F: Mycosis Fungoides is a T cell Lymphoma

  • True

  • False

True

6
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What is the most common extranodal sites where you might find NHL?

  • The skin

  • Waldeyer’s ring

  • GI tract

  • Thyroid

GI tract

7
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T/F: Reed Sternberg Cell is found in Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma:

  • True

  • False

False

8
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What is the most common type of HL?

  • Nodular lymphocytic predominate

  • Classic

  • Nodular sclerosing

  • Mixed cellularity

Classic

9
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What is the staging system associated most closely with Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

Ann Arbor

10
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T/F: ABVD is the chemo regimen used to treat Hodgkin's Lymphoma:

  • True

  • False

True

11
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A mantle field is used to treat which type of cancer?

  • Mycosis fungoides

  • Multiple myeloma

  • Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)

  • Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

12
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In what general anatomical location is Waldeyer’s ring located?

  • Mouth

  • Anus

  • Small intestine

  • Axilla

Mouth

13
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The spleen is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?

  • Red blood cells

  • B-cell lymphocytes

  • T-cell lymphocytes

  • Macrophages

Red blood cells

14
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The thymus is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?

  • Red blood cells

  • B-cell lymphocytes

  • T-cell lymphocytes

  • Macrophages

T-cell lymphocytes

15
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What is the most common presenting symptom of HD?

  • Painless mass

  • Headache

  • Persistent cough

  • Dysphagia

Painless mass

16
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Which treatment field for HD includes the inguinal lymph node chain?

  • Mantle

  • Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

  • Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

  • All of the above

Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

17
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Which treatment field for HD includes the axillary lymph node chain?

  • Mantle

  • Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

  • Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

  • All of the above

Mantle

18
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Which treatment field for HD includes the cervical lymph node chain?

  • Mantle

  • Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

  • Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

  • All of the above


Mantle

19
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Which treatment field for HD includes the para-aortic lymph node chain?

  • Mantle

  • Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

  • Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

  • All of the above

Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

20
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Which treatment field for HD includes the mediastinal lymph node chain?

  • Mantle

  • Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)

  • Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)

  • All of the above

Mantle

21
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Which lymph node chain is more likely to be the original site of Hodgkin lymphoma?

  • Pelvic

  • Inguinal

  • Para-aortic

  • Axillary

Axillary

22
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Which lymphoma is most common in young African males?

  • T-cell lymphoma

  • Burkitt lymphoma

  • HD

  • Follicular lymphoma

Burkitt lymphoma

23
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People with _____ tend to get Burkitt’s Lymphoma

AIDS

24
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Which of the following organs is most closely associated with the lymphatic system?

  • Heart

  • Spleen

  • Pancreas

  • Liver

Spleen

25
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Which of the following is not a B symptom?

  • Weight loss

  • Night sweats

  • Fever

  • Diarrhea

Diarrhea

26
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Which pathologic type of Hodgkin lymphoma is the least common in the United States?

  • Nodular sclerosing

  • Mixed cellularity

  • Lymphocyte depleted

  • Lymphocyte rich

Lymphocyte depleted

27
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What is the most common skin cancer?

  • Basal cell carcinoma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Melanoma

  • Merkel cell carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma

28
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T/F: TNM is the staging system for skin cancers

  • True

  • False

True

29
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Which of the following has a high rate of recurrence after surgical removal?

  • BCC

  • SCC

  • Kaposi’s sarcoma

  • Merkel cell carcinoma

Merkel cell carcinoma

30
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T/F: The 2 non-staging systems that help describe skin cancer disease are Clark levels of disease invasion and Breslow's system

  • True

  • False

True

31
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What condition is associated with cutaneous t-cell lymphoma

  • Kaposi’s sarcoma

  • Mycosis fungoides

  • Merkel cell carcinoma

  • Adenocarcinoma of the sebaceous glands

Mycosis fungoides

32
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This condition resembles eczema and is often treated with total skin electron beams:

  • Kaposi’s sarcoma

  • Mycosis fungoides

  • Merkel cell carcinoma

  • Adenocarcinoma of the sebaceous glands

Mycosis fungoides

33
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What is the name of the surgery used to remove layer after layer of squamous cell carcinoma until the margins are clear under a microscope?

Mohs

34
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What is the NCCN margin recommendation for a BCC greater than or equal to 2 cm?

  • 0.5-1 cm

  • 1-1.5 cm

  • 1.5-2 cm

  • 2-2.5 cm

1.5-2 cm

35
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What is the name of the condition for which the body cannot repair damage to DNA from UV light that results in freckling?

  • Albinoism

  • Xeroderma pigmentosum

  • Melanoma

  • Kaposi's sarcoma

Xeroderma pigmentosum

36
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What is the advantage of using Cerrobend shielding as opposed to lead?

Lower melting point

37
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What is the most significant cause of skin cancer?

  • Radiation exposure

  • Sun exposure

  • Arsenic exposure

  • Human papillomavirus

Sun exposure

38
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What is the most common form of skin cancer?

  • Basal cell carcinoma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Melanoma

  • Kaposi sarcoma

Basal cell carcinoma

39
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What form of skin cancer has the highest mortality rate?

  • Basal cell carcinoma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Melanoma

  • Kaposi sarcoma

Melanoma

40
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What is the most widely used staging system for melanoma?

  • TNM

  • Breslow

  • Clarke

  • ATCG

Breslow

41
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What is the technique in which the tumor is removed and examined one layer at a time?

  • Curettage and electrodessication

  • Mohs surgery

  • Cryosurgery

  • Laser surgery

Mohs surgery

42
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What is the most superficial layer of the skin?

  • Hypodermis

  • Dermis

  • Subdermis

  • Epidermis

Epidermis

43
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What do the ABCDs of melanoma represent?

  • Adenocarcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, carcinoma in situ, dermatoma

  • Abrasion, bruise, cut, dimpling

  • Asymmetry, border, color, diameter

  • Appearance, blackness, contour, depth

Asymmetry, border, color, diameter

44
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What primary skin cancer (other than malignant melanoma) is aggressive and has a tendency to spread through the lymphatics and bloodstream?

  • Adenocarcinoma

  • Basal cell

  • Squamous cell

  • Merkel cell

Merkel cell

45
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Which cancer is commonly associated with HIV?

  • Rhabdomyosarcoma

  • Mycosis fungoides

  • Melanoma

  • Kaposi sarcoma

Kaposi sarcoma

46
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Which of the following factors contributes to the incidence of skin cancer?
I.   Geographic location
II.  Skin type
III. Previous skin cancers
IV. Gender

  • I and II

  • II and III

  • I, II, and III

  • I, II, III, and IV

I, II, III, and IV

47
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What is the medical term for a mole?

  • Actinic keratosis

  • Nevus

  • Telangiectasia

  • Xeroderma pigmentosum

Nevus

48
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When radiation is used to treat a nonmelanoma skin cancer, which of the following treatment techniques offers the best cosmetic effect?

  • Parallel-opposed high-energy photons

  • Single-field low-energy photon

  • Single-field low-energy electron

  • Interstitial brachytherapy

Single-field low-energy photon

49
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In instances where malignant melanoma is treated with radiation, delivering one fraction per day, which of the following is the most effective fraction size?

  • 100 to 150 cGy

  • 150 to 180 cGy

  • 180 to 200 cGy

  • 200 to 400 cGy

200 to 400 cGy

50
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The microstaging system for melanomas that categorizes melanomas based on their level of invasion through the epidermis and layers of the dermis is called __________.

  • Clark’s

  • Breslow’s

  • Mohs

  • Gleason’s

Clark’s

51
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Bolus may be used with electron therapy to _______________.
I.   compensate for missing tissue 
II.  maximize surface dose 
III. reduce underlying tissue dose

  • I, III

  • II, III

  • I, II

  • I, II, III

I, II, III

52
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Which of the following cancers would most likely be seen in a child?

  • Retinoblastoma

  • Primary brain

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Hodgkin’s disease (HD)

Primary brain

53
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Ewing sarcomas are cancers of which organ?

  • Kidney

  • Bone

  • Skeletal muscle

  • Smooth muscle

Bone

54
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Rhabdomyosarcomas are cancers of which organ?

  • Kidney

  • Bone

  • Brain

  • Mesenchymal

Mesenchymal

55
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The craniospinal treatment technique is used to treat what specific type of pediatric cancer?

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Neuroblastoma

  • Rhabdomyosarcoma

  • Retinoblastoma

Medulloblastoma

56
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What is the most common intracranial tumor in children?

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Metastatic lesion

  • Low-Grade Astrocytoma

  • Craniopharyngioma

Low-Grade Astrocytoma

57
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Which pediatric cancer spreads through the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

  • Leukemia

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Neuroblastoma

  • Retinoblastoma

Medulloblastoma

58
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Which pediatric cancer occurs in the sympathetic nervous system ganglia?

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Neuroblastoma

  • Primary brain lesions

  • Retinoblastoma

Neuroblastoma

59
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Wilms’ tumors are cancers of which organ?

  • Kidney

  • Bone

  • Skeletal muscle

  • Smooth muscle

Kidney

60
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Medulloblastomas typically begin in which area of the brain?

  • Brain stem

  • Cerebellum

  • Cerebrum

  • Hypothalamus

Cerebellum

61
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The most common pediatric cancer is _________________.

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Retinoblastoma

  • Acute leukemia

  • Wilms’ tumor

Acute leukemia

62
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Which of the following is an acceptable radiation therapy treatment technique for soft tissue sarcomas (STS)?
I.   External beam
II.  Brachytherapy
III. Intraoperative

  • I, II, and III

  • I and II

  • II and III

  • I and III

I, II, and III

63
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In which anatomical location are primary bone lesions most common?

  • Spine

  • Lower extremity

  • Trunk

  • Upper extremity

Lower extremity

64
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In which anatomical location are STSs most common?

  • Upper extremity

  • Lower extremity

  • Head and neck

  • Trunk

Lower extremity

65
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What type of bone marrow is contained in the diaphysis of long bones?

  • White

  • Red

  • Blue

  • Yellow

Yellow

66
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What is the most common form of primary bone cancer?

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Chordoma

  • Chondrosarcoma

  • Fibrosarcoma

Osteosarcoma

67
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What is the most common site of metastasis from a primary bone cancer?

  • Brain

  • Lung

  • Bone

  • Bowel

Lung

68
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Most STSs generally spread through _________________.
I.   the lymphatic system
II.  direct invasion and extension
III. hematogenous spread

  • I and III

  • I, II, and III

  • II and III

  • I and II

II and III

69
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Which of the following is the most common metastatic site in STS?

  • Bone

  • Liver

  • Lung

  • Brain

Lung

70
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It is important when treating an extremity for STS to have a strip of unirradiated tissue near the treatment volume to _______________________.
I.   maintain some lymphatic function
II.  avoid increased fracture possibilities
III. avoid circumferential fibrosis

  • I and II

  • I, II, and III

  • II and III

  • I and III

I and III

71
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Overall, STS requires which dose of radiation to achieve local control and long-term survival?

  • Medium

  • High

  • Low

High

72
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When used with radiation therapy, which of the following reduces the loss of function and improves overall control?

  • Radical resection

  • Limb-sparing surgery

  • Amputation

  • Intralesional resection

Limb-sparing surgery

73
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All except which of the following are examples of primary bone tumors?

  • Malignant histiocytoma

  • Multiple myeloma

  • Osteosarcoma

  • Rhabdomyosarcoma

Rhabdomyosarcoma

74
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Which of the following has the highest incidence of bone tumors?

  • Multiple myeloma

  • Ewing sarcoma

  • Chondrosarcoma

  • Metastatic bone lesions

Metastatic bone lesions

75
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Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of patients with bone tumors?

  • Decreased blood count

  • Pathologic fracture

  • Elevated blood count

  • Pain

Pain

76
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The main shaft of a typical long bone is termed the __________.

  • Shaftosis

  • Epiphysis

  • Periosteum

  • Diaphysis

Diaphysis

77
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Bone scans are used to evaluate which of the following?

  • Extent of soft tissue involvement

  • Histology of the specimen

  • Spread of metastatic disease

  • None of the above

Spread of metastatic disease

78
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Primary treatment for osteogenic sarcoma involves which of the following?
I.   Radiation therapy
II.  Surgery
III. Chemotherapy

  • I and III

  • I, II, and III

  • I and II

  • II and III

II and III

79
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The role of the radiation therapist in the treatment of patients with bone tumors includes which of the following?
I.   Education
II.  Communication
III. Assessment
IV. Monitoring medical equipment

  • II, III, and IV

  • I, III, and IV

  • I, II, III, and IV

  • I, II, and III

I, II, III, and IV

80
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What is the name of the emergency procedure that shuts down the MRI magnet?

Quench

81
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T/F: Adaptive treatments are usually longer than non-adaptive treatments.

  • True

  • False

True

82
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Which two have the most variation from day to day

  • Muscle

  • Air

  • Water

  • Bone

  • Fat

Air, Water

83
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The tracking structure most often in used in an MRgRT treatment is the:

  • CTV

  • PTV

  • Tumor

  • OTV

Tumor

84
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Which is considered a ferrous foreign body?

  • Pacemaker

  • Stent

  • Shrapnel

  • Morphine pump

Shrapnel

85
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What are the 2 most common types of cancer treated on Jefferson's MR linac?

Prostate and Pancreas

86
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What is the most important component of any MR guided Radiation Therapy treatment?

  • Making sure the patient can lie still for long periods

  • The screening process

  • Having the physicists and doctors on hand to review images in real time

  • All of the above are equally important

The screening process

87
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T/F: Body tattoos never present a problem for MR guided treatments

  • True

  • False

False

88
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T/F: High grade Astrocytomas usually have a good prognosis.

  • True

  • False

False

89
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T/F: Retinoblastoma is the most common ocular tumor.

  • True

  • False

True

90
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What pediatric cancer can be treated with a brachytherapy eye plaque?

  • Retinoblastoma

  • Brainstem glioma

  • Medulloblastoma

  • Wilm's Tumor

Retinoblastoma

91
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T/F: Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumor

  • True

  • False

True

92
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Which pediatric tumor is a malignant embryonal cancer of the kidney?

  • Neuroblastoma

  • Rhabdomyosarcoma

  • Wilm's Tumor

  • Ependymoma

Wilm's Tumor

93
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These tumors are characterized by small blue round cells

  • Wilm's tumors

  • Retinoblastomas

  • Neuroblastomas

  • None of the above

Neuroblastomas

94
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Optic gliomas are usually:

  • Low-Grade Astrocytomas

  • High-Grade Astrocytomas

  • Metastatic in nature

  • Retinoblastomas

Low-Grade Astrocytomas

95
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Most pediatric solid tumors arise in the:

  • Abdomen

  • Head and neck

  • CNS

  • Blood

CNS

96
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T/F: Brain stem Gliomas have a poor prognosis

  • True

  • False

True

97
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What is the most common tumor in infants?

  • Leukemia

  • Lymphoma

  • Wilm's tumor

  • Neuroblastoma

Neuroblastoma