QB questions

a

Q1 (6)

190

Which is stained blue by Hematoxylin-Eosin (HE) staining?

a nucleus

b lysosome

c mitochondria

d Golgi complex

e cell membrane

e

#1

191

Which is lysosome?

a A

b B

c C

d D

e E

a

Q1 (3)

192

Which lacks unit membrane?

a ribosome

b smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c rough endoplasmic reticulum

d mitochondria

e Golgi complex

a

＃1

193

Which organelle is the cause of mucopolysaccharidosis?

a lysosome

b Golgi complex

c smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d rough endoplasmic reticulum

e ribosome

d

Q1 (2)

194

Which organelle does NOT have nuclei acid?

a nucleolus

b endoplasmic reticulum

c mitochondria

d Golgi complex

e ribosome

a

#1

195

Which is the function of the organelle in the picture?

a generation of ATP

b synthesis of lipids

c synthesis of proteins

d glycogen storage

e transportation of ions

e

#1

196

Which is NOT the component of cell membrane?

a protein

b glycolipid

c phospholipid

d cholesterol

e triglyceride

d

#1

197

The following shows schematic diagram of endothelial cell.

Which is the gap junction?

a a

b b

c c

d d

e e

a

#1

198

Which is produced in the cell membrane?

a Angiotensin II

b thromboxane

c NO

d Insulin

e serotonin

d

#1

199

Which is related to the formation of the lipid bilayer membrane composing phospholipids?

a SS-bond

b β-sheet

c hydrogen bond

d amphipathic

e optimum pH

a

Q1 (5)

200

Which protein is involved in the bond arrowed in the picture?

a Cadherin

b Cyclin

c Kinesin

d Dynein

e Tubulin

c

Q10 (8)

201

During cell division, which is a phase when chromatids are aligned on the equatorial plane?

a prophase

b prometaphase

c metaphase

d anaphase

e telophase

e

Q1 (1)

202

Which of the following exists in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a Mitochondria

b Endoplasmic reticulum

c Nuclear membrane

d lysosomes

e Ribosomes

a

#1

203

How many ova will be originated when a oocyte is divided twice by meiosis in gametogenesis?

a 1

b 2

c 3

d 4

e 5

b

#1

204

Which is INCORRECT about meiosis?

a In the formation of the spermatozoa, any polar body will not be released.

b At fertilization, meiosis of the oocyte is already done.

c There are two kinds of sex chromosomes in spermatozoa.

d The number of chromosomes in both spermatozoa and oocytes are halved by meiosis.

e The number of oocyte originated from ovum by meiosis is one.

c

#10

205

The figure shows the relationship between the number of cells and the amount of DNA in the cell cycle. Which phase does the arrow indicate?

a G0 phase

b G1 phase

c S phase

d G2 phase

e M phase

d

Q3 (2)

206

How many genes does human have?

a 30

b 150

c 10,000

d 30,000

e 100,000

e

Q2 (2)

207

Which is correct about the sex chromosomes?

a Phenotype of XX is male.

b In XXY, the phenotype is female.

c X is inactivated in XY.

d In XXX, one X is inactivated.

e One of X is inactivated in XX.

d

Q2 (1)

208

Which is INCORRECT about the chromosomes?

a Short and long arm are known as p and q, respectively.

b There are 24 kinds of chromosomes in human.

c The presence of three copies of one particular chromosome is known as trisomy.

d X chromosome is the largest human chromosome.

e The spindle apparatus is formed in centromere when the chromosome is divided.

d

Q2 (3)

209

Which is correct about DNA?

a It is a polymer of nucleosides.

b It has structure α-helix.

c In double-stranded DNA, the bases are paired by ionic bonds.

d The phosphate groups and deoxyriboses form the backbone.

e Used as a template for synthesis of proteins directly.

c

Q15 (1)

210

Histone is a basic substance that forms a complex with DNA. How do histone and DNA move when they are separate from each other and electrophoresis is performed with a buffer solution at pH7.0 using a cellulose acetate film?

a Both move to the positive electrode.

b Both move to the negative electrode.

c DNA moves to the positive electrode, and histone moves to the negative electrode.

d Histone moves to the positive electrode ode, and DNA moves to the negative electrode.

e Neither moves.

b

Q11 (4)

211

What is the effect of ultraviolet rays?

a purine dimer formation

b pyrimidine dimer formation

c single strand break

d double strand break

e deamination

e

Q3 (1)

212

Which does NOT exist within a gene?

a Promorters

b Exons

c Introns

d Enhancers

e Polyadenylate

a

#18

213

Which is the method to identify chromosomal translocations?

a FISH

b ELISA

c Western blotting

d immunohistochemistry

e microarray analysis

b

Q3 (3)

214

How many percentages of whole genome encode proteins?

a 0.1%

b 1%

c 5~8%

d 30~45%

e 60~75%

b

Q9 (1)

215

Which is correct about telomere?

a Telomeres are shortened by cancer.

b Telomeres grow by telomerase

c Telomeres of germ cells do not grow.

d Telomeres do not have relation with cellular life span.

e Telomerase is constantly expressed in cells throughout the body.

e

Q12 (10)

216

Which does NOT invoke in DNA repair?

a DNA ligase

b DNA helicase

c DNA polymerase

d DNA endonuclease

e DNA primase

b

#20

217

E. coli was cultured for adequate time in light medium with 14N, and then it is cultured for three generations in heavy medium with 15N. Assuming that LL is DNA consisting of 14N, LH is DNA consisting of 14N and 15N, and HH is DNA consisting of 15N. Which of the following constitution is correct when the cultivation is done?

a 1LL to 3LH

b 1LH to 3HH

c 1LH to 3LL

d 1HH to 15LL

e 1LH to 7HH

c

#9

218

Which is DNA helicase?

a ①

b ②

c ③

d ④

e ⑤

a

Q16 (2)

219

A circular DNA was digested with restriction enzyme A and B, which was analyzed by agarose gel electrophoresis. Which is the structure of the circular DNA?

a 1

b 2

c 3

d 4

e 5

b

#15

220

PCR has done 10 times, with 80% of terminal efficiency of DNA synthesis for one cycle. How many times is the amount of DNA at the end as many as that at first?

a 2^1.8

b 1.8^10

c 80^2

d 2×80

e 2^80

c

#7

221

Which of these is important for the expression of function to be strongly bound to protein?

a cRNA

b mRNA

c rRNA

d tRNA

e snRNA

e

#4

222

Which of the following is INCORRECT about mRNA in eukaryotes?

a It generate base pair inside the molecule.

b Poly A is added to 3’ end.

c 5’ end is capped.

d Pre-mRNA undergoes splicing in the nucleus to be mRNA, and moves to the cytosol.

e Pre-mRNA is complementary to cDNA.

a

#8

223

When the total number of nucleotides of RNA immediately after transcription is 2,400 (intron is 1,800), what is the maximum number of amino acids in the protein synthesized from the mature mRNA? However, this RNA contains a stop codon.

a 199

b 200

c 599

d 799

e 800

c

Cf)Q3(7)

224

Which is the components of DNA that could cause change in protein quality with deletion of one nucleotide?

a Promotors

b Enhancers

c Exons

d Introns

e Trailer sequence

b

Not in quiz

225

Which is NOT correct about tRNA?

a It forms aminoacyl-tRNA.

b 5’ end is capped.

c It transports amino acid specific to each tRNA

d tRNA recognizes the codon on the mRNA and binds to it.

e It is clover-shape.

b

Q2(4)

226

Which is the amino acid firstly used for protein synthesis?

a Arginin

b Methionine

c Leucine

d Phenylalanine

e Aspartic acid

c

227

The figure shows RNA sequence.

Which is UNlikely to form a base pair?

a a

b b

c c

d d

e e

a

Not in quiz

228

An electron micrograph of a DNA double helix is shown.

Which one is working at the arrow?

a RNA polymerase

b DNA polymerase

c Ribosome RNA

d helicase

e transfer RNA

a

Cf) Q2(5)

229

Which is correct about RNA?

a It has one strand as a basic structure.

b It is more stable than DNA.

c It is broken down by deoxyribonuclease.

d Adenine changes to thymine.

e It has deoxyribose as a basic structure.

d

230

Which is correct as central dogma?

a RNA→Proteins→DNA

b RNA→DNA→Proteins

c DNA→Proteins→RNA

d DNA→RNA→Proteins

e Proteins→RNA→ DNA

b

Q16(2)

231

cDNA encoding human protein was cloned into a plasmid vector, which you want to express in E. coli. Which of the following should be cloned into the vector? (Amp^r is ampicillin-resistance gene.)

a Cloning of human enhancer into “a” site.

b Cloning of E. coli promoter into “a” site.

c Cloning of human promoter into “b” site.

d Cloning of E. coli repressor into “b” site.

e Cloning of human origin of replication to “c” site.

b

232

Which should be used to make cDNAs from messenger RNA below using reverse transcriptase?

a dA oligomer

b dT oligomer

c dU oligomer

d dG oligomer

e dC oligomer

e

#19

233

Which combination of molecular biology and analysis is correct?

a ELISA-DNA

b PCR-antigen

c Western blotting - sugar

d Southern blotting - protein

e Northern blotting - mRNA

d

Q15(3)

234

Which is correct for reaction shown in the figure?

a Only one primer is needed.

b RNA is amplified if RNA is used as a template.

c In 30 cycles, the target DNA is about 30 times larger.

d A heat resistant DNA polymerase is required.

e DNA is amplified when temperature is 60°C.

b

#18

235

DNA was mixed in, during RT-PCR.

Which measurement can be taken to remove contamination?

a Phenol extraction

b DNA polymerase

c DNApol

d RNApol

e To increase humidity

c

Q18(1)

236

Which can detect DNA fragmentation during apoptosis?

a PCR

b Mass spectrometry

c Agarose gel electrophoresis

d Western blotting

e Ion chromatography

e

Q15(9)

237

Which is not necessary for PCR?

a Template DNA

b Nucleotide

c DNA polymerase

d Primer strand

e Ribonuclease

e

Q24

238

Which is correct about SNPs on human genome?

a It exists only in exons.

b It exists only in autosomal chromosomes.

c The individual difference in genomes is about 1%.

d There is no specific SNPs among races.

e SNPs are the most common individual differences in genomes.

d

239

Which sample cannot be used for DNA type analysis?

a Teeth

b Saliva

c Hair follicle

d Red blood cell

e Oral mucosa

b

Q3(5)

240

Which is NOT polymorphism?

a VNTR

b Lengh of telomere

c SNPs

d RFLP

e Microsatellite

c

Not in quiz

495

Which does NOT have ribosome?

a Fungus

b Protozoa

c Virus

d Bacteria

e Multicellular animal

c

535

Which is structure that bacteria has?

a Endoplasmic reticulum

b Nucleolus

c Ribosome

d Mitochondria

e Nuclear membrane

b

Not in quiz

543

Which exists in bacteria?

a Nuclear membrane

b Cell membrane

c Gigi complex

d Mitochondria

e Endoplasmic reticulum

a

Q22(8)

677

Which disease occurs in a single genetic abnormality of an autosomal chromosome？

a Sickle cell disease

b Hemophilia

c Turner syndrome

d Down syndrome

e Klinefelter syndrome

a

Q22(5)

678

Which is the disorder most of whose patients are male?

a Hemophilia

b Cleft palate

c Down syndrome

d Phenylketonuria

e Turner syndrome

c

#22

679

Which is caused by an abnormality in the number of autosomes?

a Hemophilia

b Sickle cell disease

c Down syndrome

d Turner syndrome

e Creutzfeldt‐Jakob disease

d

Q23(2)

680

What is a feature of Down syndrome?

a Mostly die in infancy

b Likely to be born when one's mother gives birth in her twenties

c Less likely to be associated with internal deformities

d Flat faces

e Lean and tall

a

Q23(3)

681

Which is a correct combination of disorder and chromosomal abnormality?

a Turner syndrome – 45, XO

b Klinefelter syndrome – 47, XXX

c Testicular feminization syndrome - 46, XX

d Down syndrome – 46, XX +21

e Alport syndrome - 45, XX +21

d

#23

682

Which is correct about XXY syndrome?

a Abnormality in meiosis first division of ovum

b Abnormality in meiosis first division of spermatid

c Abnormality in meiosis second division of ovum

d Abnormality in meiosis second division of spermatid

e Abnormality in meiosis first division of ovum and spermatid

a

#23

683

Which chromosomal abnormalities do NOT cause mental retardation?

a Klinefelter syndrome

b 18 trisomy

c Down syndrome

d Cat-cry syndrome

e 13 trisomy

a

Q23(4)

684

Which does NOT have short stature?

a Klinefelter syndrome

b Bartter syndrome

c Turner syndrome

d Down syndrome

e Cushing syndrome

e

Not in quiz

685

It shows chromosomal test result

Which can be considered?

a Burkitt lymphoma

b Follicular lymphoma

c Acute myeloid leukemia

d chronic lympathic leukemia

e Chronic myeloid leukemia

b

Q12(5)

686

What is the function of genes responsible for hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer?

a DNA base excision repair

b DNA mismatch repair

c DNA nucleotide excision repair

d Double-strand homologous recombination repair

e Profreading repair

a

687

Which combination of disease and gene translocation is NOT correct?

a Follicular lymphoma - t (11;14)

b Chronic myeloid leukemia - t (9;22)

c Acute promyelocytic leukemia - t (15;17)

d Burkett lymphoma - t (8;14)

e Acute myeloid leukemia - t (8;21)

e

Q23(5)

688

If father is affected by Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy (MELAS) and mother is not, which one is correct?

a Both their daughter will be affected by MELAS with 100% chance.

b Their daughters will be affected by MELAS.

c Their sons will be affected by MELAS.

d Their sons will be affected by MELAS with 50% chance.

E Their children will not be affected by MELAS.

a

#22

689

Which is X-liked recessive inheritance?

a Sickle cell disease

b Hurler syndrome

c Phenylketonuria

d Familial adenomatous polyposis

e myotonic dystrophy

c

Q12(8)

690

Which results from enzyme defect for DNA repair?

a Down syndrome

b Turner syndrome

c Werner syndrome

d Klinefelter syndrome

e Angelman syndrome

c

691

Which of the following is inactivation of the Rb gene in boys with sporadic retinoblastoma?

a Mother‘s ovum

b Father’s sperm

c Patient‘s somatic cell

d Patient’s germ cell

e Parent’s germ cell

b

#22

692

Which disease is caused by the following changes in DNA?

a Familial adenomatous polyposis

b Xeroderma pigmentosum

c Sickle cell disease

d Neurofibromatosis

e Marfan syndrome

d

Q24(1), (9)

693

Which disease is caused by multifactorial inheritance?

a Hemophilia

b Duchenne muscular dystrophy

c Galactosemia

d Type 2 diabetes

e Sickle cell disease

e

Q24 (2)

694

The figure shows relationship between genetic factors and environmental factors on diseases. Which of the following combination is wrong?

a A - Familial hypercholesteremia

b A - Hemophilia

c B - Hypertension

d B - Cancer

e C – Type 2 diabetes

b

Q10 (6)

696

Which is function of p53?

a It activates cell cycle progression.

b It triggers apoptosis.

c It modifies proteins.

d It activates tyrosinase.

e It shortens telomeres.

b

#14

701

Which of these is NOT seen in apoptotic cell death?

a Nuclear condensation

b Lysosomal swelling

c Leakage of cytochrome c from mitochondria

d Phosphartidylserine to the cell surface

e Fragmentation of chromosome DNA in nucleosome units

b

#14

702

The figure shows the result of agarose electrophoresis of the DNA of apoptotic cells.

Step ladder is integral multiple of how many base pairs?

a 90

b 180

c 270

d 360

e 450