Microbiology Exam 2

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What is the reagent in the optochin test?

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1

What is the reagent in the optochin test?

Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride

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2

What is the optochin test?

  • Differentiates between streptococcus veridans and streptococcus pneumonia

  • Uses an optochin disc

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3

What is the quelling test?

  • It can demonstrate capsules in an organism

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4

Which tests are used to identify Streptococcus pneumoniae?

Quelling test, optochin test, bile solubility, latex agglutination/counterimmunoelectrophoresis

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5

What species can sometimes give a false positive for coagulase?

Enterococcus

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6

What is the most common cause of SBE?

Streptococcus viridans

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7

Quantitative vs qualitative

  • Quantitative: Numerical measurement

  • Qualitative: Quality, not numerical value

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8

Is Kirby-Bauer qualitative or quantitative?

Qualitative

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9

What is the kirby-bauer test?

  • Qualitative test

  • Agar disc diffusion

  • Uses mueller hinton agar with a 3-5 mm depth in 100 or 150 mm plates

  • Stored at 4 C, pH 7.2-7.4

  • Divalent Ca2+ and cationic Mg2+ present affect the results of aminoglycosides, polymixinns, tetracyclines against Pseudomonas

  • 4% NaCl enhances the ability to detect MRSA

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10

Is MIC quantitative or qualitative?

Quantitative

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11

What are dilution tests?

  • Quantitative

  • Give a more accurate measure of the probable in vivo effect of a drug

  • Results are expressed as the minimal concentration to inhibit (MIC) or to kill (MBC) the test strain

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12

Why would a dilution test be done?

  • Blood cultures: Endocarditis and septicemia

  • Patients who fail to respond to adequate therapy

  • Patients who relapse while undergoing therapy

  • Pediatric cases of meningitis and septicemia

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13

What is the antimicrobial gradient strip method, E-Test (Epsilometer)?

  • Quantitative MIC on agar containing a gradient of antimicrobial agent applied

  • 0.5 McFarland and streak to agar twice within 15 minutes of adjusting turbidity

  • Do NOT incubate with CO2

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14

What is the main test for beta-lactamase?

Chromogenic cephalosporin

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15

What is the D-Test?

  • Inducible clindamycin resistance

  • Macrolide resistance in Staph and Strep are conferred by the erm gene which results in resistance to erythromycin and either inducible or constitutive resistance to clindamycin

<ul><li><p>Inducible clindamycin resistance</p></li><li><p>Macrolide resistance in Staph and Strep are conferred by the erm gene which results in resistance to erythromycin and either inducible or constitutive resistance to clindamycin</p></li></ul>
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16

What is the turbidity standard?

0.5 McFarland

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17

Extended Specrum B-lactamase (ESBL)

Spontaneous mutations which result in novel B-lactamases can inactivate extended-spectrum cephalosporins, penicillins, and aztreonam

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18

AmpC B-lactamase

Members of Enterobacteriaceae produce plasmid-mediated or chromosomal AmpC B-lactamase which confers resistance to cephamycins

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19

Carbapenemase B-lactamase (CRE)

  • Members of Enterobacteriaceae that produce carbapenemase are often resistant to one or more of the carbapenems

  • Acinobacter is a major CRE organism

  • Resistance is to carbapenems, penicillins, cephalosporins, and aztreonam

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20

Metallo-B-lactamase

  • New Delhi strain

  • Pseudamonas was the original organism, but now there are enterobacterialis

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21

Bacteriacidal activity of serum

  • Testing the antibiotic that’s in the patient’s serum to see if it’s at the level they need to treat that organism

  • Known as the Schlichter test

  • Do NOT use plasma

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22

What is synergism?

Effect of a combination is GREATER than the sum of the effect of each agent tested independently

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23

What is additive or indifferent?

Effect of a combination is EQUAL to the sum of the effects of each agent or is no greater than that of the more active drug

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24

What is antagonism?

Effect of a combination is less than the effect of the more active agent

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25

What are the clinical uses of combination therapy?

  • Endocarditis caused by Enterococcus

  • Tuberculosis

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26

Checkerboard/chessboard titration

Two drugs are diluted as for MIC determinations and then combined in sets consisting of each concentration of one drug against serial dilutions of the other

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27

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

  • Serum levels of antimicrobial agents

  • Don’t want the antimicrobial levels in the patient to get too high or low

  • Serum samples are drawn at certain times to monitor antibiotic levels

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28

What is pharmacodynamics?

The absorption/presence of antibiotic in different tissues and sites

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29

What is pharmacokinetics?

Concentration of drug in certain areas

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30

What are the inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?

  • B-lactams: Penicillin, cephalosporins

  • Carbapenems: Imipenem

  • Glycopeptides: Vancomycin

  • Monobactams: Aztreonam

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31

What are the inhibitors of cell membrane functions?

  • Most are against gram positive

  • Gram positives: Lipopeptides: Daptomycin

  • Gram negatives: Polymixins

  • Fungi: Amphotericin B

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32

What are the inhibitors of protein synthesis?

  • Gram-positive and negative

  • Aminoglycosides

  • SPS counteracts aminoglycosides in some blood cultures

  • Tetracycline

  • Macrolides

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33

What are the inhibitors of nucleic acid? (DNA and RNA)

  • Gram positive and negative

  • Quinolones

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Most inhibit DNA

  • Rifampin: RNA

  • Nitrofurantoin: Urinary tract only

  • Nitromidazoles

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34

What are the inhibitors of folic acid synthesis?

  • Sulfa drugs

  • Gram positive and many gram negative

  • Sulfonamides

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35

What are the non-genetic causes of antibiotic resistance?

  1. Enzymatic destruction

  2. Enzymatic modification

  3. Altered target (receptors)

  4. Decreased uptake

  5. Target overproduction

  6. Efflux

  7. Loss of target structure

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36

What are the genetic causes of antibiotic resistance?

  1. Intrinsic

  2. Acquired resistance (Transfer)

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37

What are beta-lactams?

Beta lactamase is produced by the organism. It hydrolyzes the beta lactam ring

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38

What is penicillin?

  • Beta lactam

  • Not effective against gram negative rods

  • Soft tissue and body fluid have the highest concentrations

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39

What is cephalosporin?

  • Beta lactam

  • Similar tro penicillin, better withstands the action of B-lactamase

  • Concentrated in soft tissue, poor concentration of CNS

  • Not absorbed well from GI tract

  • Treatment for urinary and respiratory infection, but not major systemic infections

  • Some nephrotoxicity

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40

What are the other beta-lactams?

Carbapens: Broadest spectrum of all antimicrobial agents. Referred to as penems

Monobactams: Aztreonam is the only one. Broad spectrum. For gram negatives

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41

What antibiotic cannot be used during pregnancy or used on infants?

Tetracyclines. It destroys the enamel of teeth and causes bone damage. Can cause green teeth

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42

What are the urinary tract drugs?

  • Nitrofurantoin, nalidixic acid, phosphomycin is urinary tract ONLY

  • Fosfomycin is for E. coli and enterococcus

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43

What antibiotic causes ota and renal toxicity?

Aminoglycosides

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44

What is Kawasaki disease?

  • Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome

  • Toxin is from Staph aureus

  • Found in children 5 and under

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45

What is toxic shock syndrom?

  • Patient is acutely ill, febrile, toxemia

  • Hypotension, DIC (Disseminated intravascular coagulation)

  • Toxin causes the infection

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46

Morphology of micrococcaceae

  • Spherical, gram positive cocci arranged singly, in pairs, clusters of 4 or 8 organisms

  • Catalase positive

  • Possess cytochrome enzymes which give a positive catalase

  • Non-motile, some pigmented

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47

At what temperature is motility and pigment produced best at?

25 C

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48

Staphylococcus aureus

  • Most important organism in this group

  • Can be found in any specimen

  • Responsible for a lot of skin infecetions and abscesses

  • Furuncles produce sinus tractsm colony grows to other sites and are harder to treat

  • Antibiotic resistant Staphylococcus are responsible for hospital acquired infection

  • Staph toxin can cause food poisoning

  • Metastatic lesions in lung, bone, kidney of 2/3 patients with bacteremia may develop endocarditis

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49

How can an infection caused by Staph aureus be differentiated from Clostridium perfringes and salmonella?

Lack of fever and short duration

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50

Scalded skin syndrome

  • Also known as Ritter’s disease

  • Generally in newborns, picked up from mom

  • Toxin causes skin to be very red

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51

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

  • Can cause similar clinical issues as Staph aureus

  • Can be typical flora, but also can be a pathogen

  • Always significant in endocarditis following cardiac or open chest surgery

  • Significant with stitch abscesses

  • Colonies exhibit a white pigment

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52

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

  • Opportunistic. Second most common cause of UTI

  • 10^4 is the significant colony count

  • Seen sometimes in innear ear infections

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53

What is the significant colony count of a UTI caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

10^4

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54

T/F: All Staphylococcus are salt tolerant

True

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55

Staphylococcus hemolyticus

  • Causes hemolysis on blood

  • Very resistant to antibiotics

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56

Primary culture of staphylococcus

  • Blood agar and thioglycollate are intially inoculated

  • Inoculate at 35 C

  • White, golden, yellow or cream colored colonies

  • Colonies appear after 24 hours on blood agar

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57

What gene dermines if Staph aureus is going to me MRSA or not?

Mech A gene

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58

What test separates Staphylococcus and Streptococcus?

Catalase test

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59

Non-hemolytic (Gamma)

  • Applies to enterococcus more than anything else

  • No lysis of red blood cells around the colony

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60

Alpha hemolysis

  • Green color surrounding the organism due to biliverdin (methemoglobin) released as RBC hemolysis is accomplished

  • Most grow better under CO2

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61

Alpha prime hemolysis

  • Colonnies producing a zone of alpha hemolysis

  • Narrow zone encircles the colony with a zone of complete or beta hemolysis

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62

Beta hemolysis

  • Total lysis of RBC’s around colony

  • Clear zone surrounnds the colony

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63

Streptolysin O (SLO) is oxygen ____

labile

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64

Streptolysin S (SLS) is oxygen ____

stable

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65

Group A post-streptococcal diseases

  • Acute glomerulonephritis

  • Rheumatic fever

  • Scarlet fever

  • Impetigo

  • Toxic shock syndrome

  • Necrotizing fascitis

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66

What antibiotic is highly concentrated in the biliary tree (liver)?

Penicillin

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67

What antibiotic can cause aplastic anemia?

Chloramphenicol

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