CPT PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS

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139 Terms

1
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what is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

less force production

2
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before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?

gluconeogenesis

3
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what training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?

slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

4
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what surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?

fascia

5
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catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?

increased lipolysis

6
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which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?

the biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

7
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if a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?

adding a stabilization pause between reps

8
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what three joint actions comprise triple flexion?

dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

9
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contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

posterior pelvic tilt

10
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which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

standing

11
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receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground

vestibular

12
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which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

LDL (low-density lipoprotein)

13
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which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer’s scope of practice is accurate?

Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease

14
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what behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

implementation intention

15
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social support is best described by which statement?

the intentional things that people do to assist others to achieve a specific behavior

16
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which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion?

synergist

17
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which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?

dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

18
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which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?

resting metabolic rate

19
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what is cardiac ouput?

the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute

20
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performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?

third class

21
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which of the following exercises is typically used to measure muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

push-up test

22
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what does BMI (body mass index) assess for?

whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height

23
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which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome?

upper trapezius

24
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competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

ankle sprains

25
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what is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

multiplanar jump with stabilization

26
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what is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

75 minutes per week

27
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what is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

28
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the addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what?

strength

29
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what is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?

proprioception

30
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what is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise

thumbs pointing up

31
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proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?

the body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements

32
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when a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client’s self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using?

set specific tasks

33
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which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?

vitamin A

34
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what is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

a sprain

35
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how many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?

about 3,500

36
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in order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?

lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

37
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pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?

eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

38
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other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?

movement assessments

39
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what are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

40
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a client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. how should the fitness professional spot their client?

the fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists

41
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for an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?

ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

42
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what differentiates change of direction from agility?

reaction to a signal

43
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what phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels?

muscular development

44
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what is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?

leg pain

45
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in which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?

postmenopausal women

46
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which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?

bench press

47
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what is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

diastolic blood pressure

48
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during short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body?

carbohydrates

49
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when a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

as exhaled carbon dioxide

50
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what is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

to connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

51
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during a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

hip abductors

52
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which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed?

free hydrogen ions

53
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which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise?

all three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity

54
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what change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?

increased heart rate

55
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which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?

cleaning the house

56
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where is it most common to take an individual’s circumference measurement to assess health risk?

waist

57
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which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increase in density through resistance training?

nerves

58
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which of the following is a component of agility training?

deceleration

59
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which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

rotatores

60
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which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

medicine ball

61
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what is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)?

the point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

62
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what is the end-systolic volume?

the amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after each contraction

63
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training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?

landing mechanics

64
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which of the following global muscles’ primary action is hip flexion?

iliopsoas

65
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which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?

elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance

66
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when using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less?

2 in

67
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how many B vitamins are there?

8

68
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which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?

internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

69
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what type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?

proprioception

70
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which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?

pro shuttle

71
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what are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

joint hypermobility and scoliosis

72
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susan’s quadriceps have been identified as overactive. what type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?

SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

73
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which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

functional (nonstructural) scoliosis

74
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repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises?

multiplanar jump with stabilization

75
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how is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

continuous talking becomes challenging

76
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what is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?

diastolic blood pressure

77
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where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

right atrium

78
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what is the most accurate description of motor control?

the ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements

79
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in what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

transverse

80
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what is acidosis in muscle?

a decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

81
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what are nonessential amino acids?

amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate

82
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what is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2?

the level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes

83
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what regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves?

thoracic and sacral

84
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maintaining one’s balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

dynamic balance

85
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during the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

hip extension

86
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which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

quickness

87
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what type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1?

fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss

88
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horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

pushing

89
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the upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula?

serratus anterior

90
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what is explained by the sliding filament theory?

the shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

91
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what are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

92
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active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

reciprocal inhibition

93
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what is the superior boundary of the core?

diaphragm

94
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what is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout?

60 to 120 seconds

95
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if the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed?

reach to their knee

96
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according to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?

0.72

97
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antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature

unilateral

98
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what blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?

a systolic reading greater than 180 mmHg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mmHg

99
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using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?

preventive care

100
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at what age is total peak bone mass reached?

30