Manor Drills - Module 3

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99 Terms

1
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The 4-oclock habit is under what level of prevention?

a.Primordial

b. Primary

c. Secondary

d. Tertiary

B

2
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A type of drug distribution system wherein drugs are found at the patient area

a.Floor Stock System

b.Individual Inpatient Prescription System

c.Uddds

d.Combination Of A & B

A

3
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UDDDS is considered to be the gold standard among drug distribution systems. UDDDS means

a.Unique Drug Dose Dissemination System

b.Unit Dose Drug Dissemination System

c.Unique Dose Drug Distribution System

d.Unit Dose Drug Distribution System

D

4
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Responsible for creating a hospital formulary

a.Pharmacy

b.Administrative Officer

c.Board Of Medical Directors

d.Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee

D

5
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Serves as the secretary of the committee that prepares the hospital formulary

a.Physician

b.Chief Pharmacist

c.Head Nurse

d.Head Surgeon

B

6
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When drugs in the main list are known to be ineffective or inappropriate for a given individual, one must refer to this list in the PNF

a.Core List

b.Substitute List

c.Complementary List

d.Alternative List

A

7
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Nutritional solution prepared by hospital pharmacist for patients with dysfunctional GIT

a. Iv Mixture

b. NSS

c. NTP

d. TPN

D

8
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This component of the solution given to patient with dysfunctional GIT gives the highest caloric value:

a. Hydrous Dextrose

b. Anhydrous Dextrose

c. Amino Acid

d. Lipid

D

9
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Which part of a prescription indicates a physician's instruction to his/her patient?

a. Inscription

b. Subscription

c. Transcription

d. Signa

e. Both C & D

E

10
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2 gtt of Tetrahydrozoline o.d. od x 3d

a. Put Two Drops Of Tetrahydrozoline To Both Ears Once A Day For Three Days

b. Instill Two Drops Of Tetrahydrozoline To Right Ear Once A Day For Three Days

c. Put Two Drops Of Tetrahydrozoline To Both Eyes Once A Day For Three Days

d. Instill Two Drops Of Tetrahydrozoline To Right Eye Once A Day For Three Days

D

11
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The drug tetrahydrozoline should be used with caution in patients with:

a. Diabetes

b. Asthma

c. Hypertension

d. Hypotension

C

12
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Prescription book should be kept for ________.

a. 1 Year

b. 2 Years

c. 3 Years

d. 4 Years

e. 5 Years

B

13
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Which of the following opioids do/es NOT require S2 license?

a. Methadone

b. Morphine

c. Tramadol

d. Both A &B

C

14
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What should a pharmacist do if he/she encounters an erroneous prescription?

I. Fill the prescription

II. DO NOT fill the prescription

III.Keep the prescription

IV. Report to the nearest DOH office

a. i, iii, iv

b. i only

c. ii only

d. ii, iii, iv

A

15
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Hypersensitivity reactions are major problems in the use of some drugs such as penicillins. This is under what type of ADR?

a. Type B

b. Type A

c. Type C

d. Type D

A

16
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True about the Type B ADR:

i. Abnormal

ii. Related to drug's pharmacology

iii. Dose-dependent

iv. Reproducible

v. Unpredictable

a.i, iv

b.ii only

c.ii, iii

d.i, iii, iv

A

17
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True about Type II Hypersensitivity reaction, EXCEPT:

I. It is cytotoxic

II. It involves the immune complex

III. It is characterized by blood dyscrasias

IV. It is IgG-mediated

V. It is IgM-mediated

a. I Only

b. II Only

c. II, III

d. I, II, Iv

e. IV, V

B

18
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An example of Type II Hypersensitivity reaction is a false positive Coomb's Test due to administration of methyldopa. Coomb's Test is used to detect:

a. Aplastic Anemia

b.Iron Deficiency Anemia

c.Hemolytic Anemia

d.Leukemia

C

19
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A patient found to be in an anaphylactic reaction is rushed to the ER. The following may be given to the patient, EXCEPT

a. Epinephrine

b. Dobutamine

c. Hydrocortisone

d. Diphenhydramine

e. Two Of The Above

B

20
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Diphenhydramine is not recommended for those who operate heavy machinery. The following can be used as an alternative to diphenhydramine, EXCEPT

a. Chlorpheniramine

b. Loratadine

c. Fexofenadine

d. Both B & C

A

21
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Vancomycin causes red man syndrome, especially when

a. Infused Slowly

b. Infused Rapidly

c. Given With Antihistamine

d. Both A & C

B

22
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Cardinal signs of inflammation, EXCEPT

a. Rubor

b. Cador

c. Dolor

d. Tumor

e. Functio Laesa

B

23
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Continuous use of steroids leads to

a. Addison's disease

b. Cushing's syndrome

c. Graves' disease

d. Reye's syndrome

B

24
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The watchful monitoring of unwanted effects and other safety-related aspects of drugs.

a. Pharmacology

b. Pharmacovigilance

c. Pharmacotherapeutics

d. Pharmacoinformatics

B

25
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The thalidomide controversy highlighted the importance of Pharmacovigilance . What was the original indication of thalidomide?

a.Sea Sickness

b.Morning Sickness

c.Leprosy

d.Leptospirosis

B

26
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Pregnancy category in which no risks have been demonstrated in animal fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women, or adverse effects have been demonstrated in animals but not in pregnant women.

a. Category A

b. Category B

c. Category C

d. Category D

e. Category X

B

27
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Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

I. Captopril - renal dysgenesis

II. Lithium - aplasia cutis

III. Methimazole - Ebstein anomaly

IV. Phenytoin - fetal hydantoin syndrome

a. i, ii

b. i, iii

c. i, iv

d. ii, iii

e. ii, iv

D

28
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Tetracyclines are not recommended for children younger than 8 years old. This is because

a. Tetracyclines Cause Permanent Tooth Discoloration

b. Tetracyclines Can Cause Stunted Growth

c. Tetracyclines Cause Underdevelopment Of Brain

d. Both A & B

D

29
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__________ is a specific COX2 inhibitor that was withdrawn from the market due to occurrence of _____________.

a. Rofecoxib; Heart Attack

b. Celecoxib; Myocardial Infarction

c. Meloxicam; Agranulocytosis

d. Piroxicam; Aplastic Anemia

A

30
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Any preventable event that may lead to inappropriate medication use or cause patient harm while the medication is in control of the healthcare provider or patient

a. Adverse Drug Event

b. Adverse Drug Reaction

c. Side Effect

d. Medication Error

D

31
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True about Category A of medication errors, EXCEPT:

a. No Error

b. With Error

c. No Harm

d. Both A & C

B

32
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Error category/ies characterized by presence of error but without causing patient harm:

i. Category A

ii. Category B

iii. Category C

iv. Category D

v. Category E

a. i only

b. v only

c. i, iii, v

d. ii, iii, iv

e. ii, iii, iv, v

D

33
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A patient accidentally overdosed with acetaminophen. To prevent further liver damage, he was given with:

a. Vitamin C

b. Vitamin K

c. Acetylcysteine

d. Protamine Sulfate

C

34
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The error observed in overdosing of medication is under what category?

a. B

b. C

c. E

d. F

e. D

C

35
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Problems that may arise when two or more drugs are combined outside the body

a. Drug Interactions

b. Physicochemical Incompatibilities

c. Therapeutic Incompatibilities

d. Both B & C

B

36
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A drug interaction which could occur but with limited data to support it is classified as

a. Established

b. Probable

c. Suspected

d. Possible

e. Unlikely

D

37
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Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Insolubility

b. Polymorphism

c. Optical Isomerism

d. Volatilization

e. Liquefaction

C

38
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Which of the following terms refer to the lowering of melting point of solids when two or more substances are combined?

a. Hygroscopy

b. Deliquescence

c. Efflorescence

d. Eutexia

D

39
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NaCl is an example of a/an __________ substance.

a. Hygroscopic

b. Deliquescent

c. Efflorescent

d. Eutectic

B

40
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Warfarin plus high garlic consumption greatly increases the risk of

a. Bleeding

b. Coagulation

c. Hypertension

d. Hypotension

A

41
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Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a. Grapefruit Juice

b. St. John's Wort

c. Griseofulvin

d. Smoking

e. Cruciferous vegetables

A

42
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A patient was prescribed with clarithromycin and simvastatin. Identify what is wrong with this.

a.

Clarithromycin, an enzyme inducer, will reduce simvastatin concentration; thus, decreasing the risk of rhabdomyolysis

b.

Clarithromycin, an enzyme inducer, will increase simvastatin concentration; thus, increasing the risk of rhabdomyolysis

c.

Clarithromycin, an enzyme inhibitor, will increase simvastatin concentration; thus, increasing the risk of rhabdomyolysis

d.

Clarithromycin, an enzyme inhibitor, will decrease simvastatin concentration; thus, decreasing the risk of rhabdomyolysis

C

43
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The pharmacist who encounters the situation if clarithromycin and simvastatin was simultaneously given must:

a.

Advise the prescriber to change clarithromycin to azithromycin

b.

Advise the prescriber to change clarithromycin to erythromycin

c.

Advise the prescriber to change simvastatin to rosuvastatin

d.

Advise the prescriber to reduce simvastatin dose

e.

Fill the prescription and counsel patient to employ dose-spacing when taking clarithromycin and simvastatin

A

44
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The following is/are complication/s of Diabetes Mellitus

a. Retinopathy

b. Nephropathy

c. Neuropathy

d. Two Of The Above

e. All Of The Above

E

45
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Oral Hypoglycemic Agents are more commonly used for

a. Type I Dm

b. Type II Dm

c. Diabetes Insipidus

d. Both A & C

B

46
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This OHA should not be given to patients who are allergic to sulfonylureas

a. Diabenese

b. Onglyza

c. Glucobay

d. Glucophage

A

47
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Which of the following parameters can differentiate Diabetes Insipidus from Diabetes Mellitus?

a.

Color Of Urine

b.

Ph Of Blood

c.

Ph Of Urine

d.

Specific Gravity Of Urine

D

48
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Administration of insulin has been associated with lipodystrophy. Which of the following should be instructed to the patient when using insulin?

a.

Switch From Insulin To Oha

b.

Orally Administer The Insulin

c.

Rotate Injection Site

d.

Decrease Frequency Of Injection

C

49
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TDM, or Therapeutic Drug Monitoring, should be conducted for drugs with narrow therapeutic index. Examples of these drugs are the following, EXCEPT

a.

Digoxin

b.

Lithium

c.

Tcas

d.

Aminoglycosides

e.

Penicillin

E

50
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Paracetamol or Acetaminophen is a widely used OTC drug for pain and fever. Which of the following is/are important information you need to counsel to your patient/s?

I. Doses higher than the recommended will not provide greater relief and can be dangerous

II. Overdosing can result to liver damage

III. Biogesic, Neozep, Decolgen, Bioflu - all contains Paracetamol

IV. Infant drops are the same as regular children's medication

a.

i, iv

b.

i, ii

c.

i, ii, iii

d.

I, II, III, IV

C

51
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NSAIDs block tubular secretion of methotrexate. This leads to methotrexate toxicity which is exhibited as

a.

Nephrotoxicity

b.

Cardiotoxicity

c.

Hepatotoxicity

d.

Neurotoxicity

C

52
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Upon measurement of a patient's BP, his HTN was classified as Stage 1 according to JNC 8. The BP measurement falls under which of the following ranges?

i. SBP of <120 mmHg

ii. SBP of 120-139 mmHg

iii. SBP of 140-159 mmHg

iv. DBP of <80 mmHg

v. DBP of 80-89 mmHg

vi. DBP of 90-99 mmHg

a.

i & iv

b.

ii & v

c.

ii or v

d.

iii & vi

e.

iii or vi

E

53
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Which of the following OTC drugs can be severely habit-forming?

I. laxatives

II. decongestants

III. antihistamines

IV. paracetamol

a.

I, II, III

b.

II, III, IV

c.

I, III, IV

d.

I, II, III, IV

A

54
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Which of the following antihypertensive agents is/are more commonly used as maintenance for pregnant patients?

a.

Hydralazine

b.

Methyldopa

c.

Captopril

d.

Losartan

e.

Both A & B

B

55
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A patient having a prescription for propranolol comes to your pharmacy. After interviewing the patient, you found out that he has Bronchial Asthma. What is the problem in this situation?

a.

There is nothing wrong with this, thus, the prescription is filled immediately.

b.

Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker; thus, it may worsen the patient's asthma.

c.

Propranolol is a beta-agonist; thus, it may worsen the patient's asthma

d.

Propranolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker; thus, it may worsen the patient's asthma.

B

56
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Which of the following beta-blockers will you suggest to the prescriber in order to prevent the same adverse effect of propranolol as an alternative?

a.

Nadolol

b.

Pindolol

c.

Metoprolol

d.

Nothing, I Trust The Prescriber

C

57
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Metacholine, a direct-acting parasympathomimetic, is used in provocative challenge test for BA diagnosis. Which of the following is also a diagnostic test for BA?

a.

Tensilon Test

b.

Spirometry Test

c.

Treadmill Test

d.

Breath Test

B

58
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Which of the following is true about ASA-induced asthma?

a.

ASA reversibly inhibits COX thus, the biosynthesis of eicosanoids is shifted more towards leukotriene production

b.

ASA irreversibly inhibits COX thus, the biosynthesis of eicosanoids is shifted more towards leukotriene production

c.

ASA reversibly inhibits COX thus, the biosynthesis of eicosanoids is shifted more towards prostaglandin production

d.

ASA irreversibly inhibits COX thus, the biosynthesis of eicosanoids is shifted more towards prostaglandin production

B

59
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A patient with gout asks you what NSAID can be used for pain management. Which of the following drugs should not be recommeneded?

a.

Indomethacin

b.

Tolmentin

c.

Ibuprofen

d.

Etoricoxib

B

60
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Which of the following terms refer to the conscientious, judicious & explicit use of best evidence in making decisions about the health of a patient?

a.

Good Pharmacy Practice

b.

Pharmaceutical Care

c.

Evidence-Based Medicine

d.

Rational Drug Use

e.

Drug Information Provision

C

61
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Which among the following study designs is considered to be the gold standard?

a.

Case-Control

b.

Cohort

c.

Cross-Sectional

d.

Randomized Controlled Clinical Trial

e.

Non-Randomized Controlled Clinical Trial

D

62
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Which phase of clinical trial is multi-centered, double-blinded, and examines both safety and efficacy of a drug?

a.

Phase I

b.

Phase II

c.

Phase III

d.

Phase IV

e.

Phase V

C

63
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This FDA-approved herbal drug has been used for cough.

a.

Banaba

b.

Mangosteen

c.

Lagundi

d.

Sambong

C

64
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Banaba has the active constituent called corosolic acid. This is responsible for banaba's _________ activity.

a.

Antidiuretic

b.

Antitussive

c.

Antihypertensive

d.

Antidiabetic

D

65
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Which of the following statements are NOT correct?

i. Vitamin B12 and Vitamin B9 Deficiencies cause megaloblastic anemia

ii. Cyanocobalamin and biotin deficiencies cause megaloblastic anemia

iii. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia

iv. Pernicious anemia causes Vitamin B12 deficiency

a.

i, ii

b.

ii, iv

c.

i, iv

d.

ii, iii

D

66
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Which of the following tests evaluate Vitamin B12 absorption?

a.

Van Den Burg Test

b.

Schilling Test

c.

Schick Test

d.

Quellang Test

B

67
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In hematology, hematocrit is decreased in:

i. Hemolytic anemia

ii. Iron-deficiency anemia

iii. Polycythemia vera

iv. Dehydration

v. Overhydration

a.

i, ii

b.

iii, iv

c.

iii, v

d.

i, ii, iii

e.

i, ii, v

E

68
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Which parameter/s would NOT likely increase blood pressure?

i. High hematocrit

ii. Low hematocrit

iii. High blood volume

iv. Low blood volume

a.

i only

b.

iii only

c.

i & iii

d.

ii & iv

D

69
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In fecalysis, this indicates upper GI bleeding and is characterized by a black stool.

a.

Hematochezia

b.

Melena

c.

Steatorrhea

d.

Two Of The Above

B

70
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In HIV-AIDS, ____________ are markedly decreased:

a.

CD4Or Cytotoxic T-Cells

b.

CD4 Or Helper T-Cells

c.

CD8 Or Helper T-Cells

d.

CD8 Or Cytotoxic T-Cells

e.

Natural Killer Cells

B

71
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Which of the following parameter is used to monitor patients under heparin therapy?

a.

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

b.

Activated Partial Prothrombin Time

c.

Prothrombin Time

d.

Thromboplastin Time

A

72
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A derivative of the hormone produced by kidneys in response to hypoxia which is commonly abused by athletes:

a.

Filgrastim

b.

Erythropoietin

c.

Epoietin Alfa

d.

Humalog

B

73
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Bilirubin is a product of hemoglobin metabolism and is conjugated in the liver for it to be readily excreted. The following increase/s conjugated bilirubin concentration, EXCEPT:

a.

Liver Disease

b.

Hemolysis

c.

Reduced Glucuronidation

d.

All Of The Above

D

74
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In kernicterus, there is an accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain. This is especially aggravated in neonates since

a.

Glucuronidation Is Their Major Metabolic Mechanism

b.

Sulfation Is Their Major Metabolic Mechanism

c.

They Can Optimally Convert Conjugated Bilirubin To Unconjugated Bulirubin

d.

Two Of The Above

B

75
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Information that the patient reports concerning symptoms, previous treatments, medications used, and adverse effects encountered are recorded under:

a.

Subjective data

b.

Objective data

c.

Assessement

d.

Plan

D

76
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Which of the following group of drugs is associated with the development of kernicterus when given to neonates?

a.

Aminoglycosides

b.

Sulfonamides

c.

Tetracyclines

d.

Penicillins

B

77
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Which of the following statements about the major electrolytes in our body is/are true?

a.

Sodium is the major intracellular cation, while potassium is the major extracellular cation

b.

Phosphate is the major intracellular anion, while chloride is the major extracellular anion

c.

Magnesium is the major intracellular anion, while calcium is the major extracellular anion

d.

Two of the above

B

78
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The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

i. Hyperparathyroidism increases serum calcium concentration

ii. Hyperparathyroidism increases serum phosphate concentration

iii. Calcitonin increases serum calcium concentration

iv. Calcitonin decreases serum calcium concentration

v. Vitamin D intoxication leads to a decrease in both serum calcium and phosphate concentrations

a.

i, iii

b.

i, iv

c.

i, iii, v

d.

ii, iii, v

e.

ii, iv, v

D

79
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A patient who has the following ABG findings is experiencing:

Parameter

Normal

Result

Blood pH

7.35-7.45

7.00

HCO3-

22-26 mEq/L

20

pCO2

35-45 mmHg

40

a.

Metabolic Acidosis

b.

Metabolic Alkalosis

c.

Respiratory Acidosis

d.

Respiratory Alkalosis

A

80
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As a compensatory mechanism, the patient suffering with low serum bicarbonate level and blood pH 7.0 could be in a state of:

a.

Hypoventilation

b.

Hyperventilation

c.

Hypovolemia

d.

Hypervolemia

B

81
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This can be measured by determining the concentration of serum creatinine.

a.

CK BB

b.

CK MB

c.

Creatinine Clearance

d.

Serum Creatinine

C

82
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This method of pharmacoeconomic evaluations measures consequences in terms of quality adjusted life year (QALY) gained.

a.

Cost-effectiveness analysis

b.

Cost-benefit analysis

c.

Cost-minimization analysis

d.

Cost-utility analysis

D

83
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High concentration of this biomarker in the blood is observed during myocardial infarction.

a.

CK BB

b.

CK MB

c.

Creatinine Clearance

d.

Serum Creatinine

B

84
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Consequence of too much use of statins can result to high levels of what biomarker in the blood?

a.

CK MB

b.

CK MM

c.

ALT

d.

AST

B

85
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Which of the following components of TPN should be added last or just before administration?

a.

Electrolytes

b.

Vitamins

c.

Trace elements

d.

Lipid emulsions

B

86
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Which of the following biomarkers are used to assess kidneys?

I. Cystatin C

II. Creatine

III. CrCl

IV. BUN

a.

I, II, III

b.

I, III, IV

c.

I, II, III, IV

d.

II, III, IV

B

87
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this term refers to an increase in cell size

a.

Hyperplasia

b.

Hypertrophy

c.

Hyperactivity

d.

Both A & B

B

88
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Mang Digo is a chronic smoker for 20 years. In a day, he smokes 15 sticks. Determine Mang Digo's pack.year.

a.

5

b.

10

c.

15

d.

20

e.

25

C

89
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How many proof gallon is contained in 33 wine gallon of an 85% v/v alcohol?

a.

33.3

b.

56.1

c.

85.0

d.

91.5

B

90
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A 1000 mL bag of a 200 mg-drug is to be infused at a rate of 15 mg per hour, with 8 drops/mL. What is the flow rate?

a.

8 Drops/Min

b.

10 Drops/Min

c.

12 Drops/Min

d.

14 Drops/Min

B

91
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The therapeutic dose of acetaminophen for children is 10-15 mg/kg/dose. With the following data, compute for the administered dose:

Patient weight: 45 lb

Available preparation: 100 mg/mL

Administered dose: 1 tsp

a.

11.11 Mg/Kg/Dose

b.

14.44 Mg/Kg/Dose

c.

15.55 Mg/Kg/Dose

d.

24.44 Mg/Kg/Dose

e.

25.55 Mg/Kg/Dose

D

92
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The therapeutic dose of acetaminophen for children is 10-15 mg/kg/dose. With the following data, Is the administered dose within the therapeutic dose?

Patient weight: 45 lb

Available preparation: 100 mg/mL

Administered dose: 1 tsp

a. Yes

b. No

c. Maybe

d. Cannot Be Determined

B

93
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Using Young's Rule, compute for the child dose of acetaminophen in a day.

Adult dose: 500 mg q4h

Child's weight: 45 lb

Child's age: 8 years old

a.

200 Mg

b.

900 Mg

c.

1,000 Mg

d.

1,200 Mg

e.

1,500 Mg

D

94
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Creatinine clearance is computed using the Cockroft & Gault formula. What is the CrCl of a female patient who is 48 years old and weighs 115 lb? Her serum creatinine is 0.98/dL.

a.

57.93 Ml/Min

b.

68.16 Ml/Min

c.

77.71 Ml/Min

d.

85.79 Ml/Min

e.

91.27 Ml/Min

A

95
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Imee measured 30 mL of a liquid using a beaker. Sammy checked Imee's measurement using a burette, which read 33.36 mL. What is the % error of Imee's measurement?

a.

10.07%

b.

11.20%

c.

1.007%

d.

1.120%

B

96
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A drug preparation has a concentration of 0.5 g/100 mL. Express this in terms of ratio strength.

a.

1:200

b.

1:2000

c.

1:500

d.

1:5000

A

97
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A pharmacist dissolves 2 g of a drug in 250 mL of water. From this solution, she transfers 2 fl.oz. to a 150 mL-beaker containing 60 mL of water. What is the final concentration?

a. 0.43%

b. 0.043 G/Ml

c. 0.0043%

d. Two Of The Above

A

98
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How many doses of 1/150 gr of MgSO4 can be prepared from 0.8 lb of the drug?

a. 839,160

b. 839,161

c. 985,279

d. 985,280

B

99
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What proportion of 17% of benzocaine ointment should be mixed with petrolatum to produce 5% of benzocaine ointment?

a. 5 Parts

b. 7 Parts

c. 10 Parts

d. 12 Parts

A

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