P1

b

1. It refers to a phenomenon in which radiation is given off by the nuclei of the elements:

a. Constant decay

b. Radioactivity

c. Radionuclide

d. Radioactive atom

b

2. All the following are examples of particulate radiation EXCEPT:

I. Pi meson

II. Deuteron

III. Microwave

IV. Beta

a. I and II

b. III only

c. II and III

d. I and IV

b

3. Which of the following is a correct statement?

a. Electrons can be emitted from orbital shells only.

b. Electrons or negatrons can be emitted from orbital shells and the nucleus.

c. Anti-neutrino is an electromagnetic radiation that is emitted during beta plus decay.

d. Positrons and protons are identical.

b

4. It refers to the number of atoms disintegrating per unit time:

a. Half-life

b. Radioactivity

c. Decay constant

d. Number of atoms in a sample

d

5. This refers to the time required for the number of radioactive atoms in a sample to decrease by one half:

a. Radioactivity

b. Physiological Half-life

c. Effective Half-life

d. Half-life

a

6. Which of the following statements describes Isotopes? Transformation of unstable to stable nuclide where the:

a. Elements and their atomic numbers are the same but their atomic masses are different.

b. Elements and their atomic numbers are different but their atomic masses are the same.

c. Elements, atomic numbers, and atomic masses are different but their neutron numbers are the same.

d. Elements, atomic numbers, and atomic masses are the same but their energy levels are different.

c

7. Which of the following particulate radiations has an atomic mass of 4 and an atomic number of 2?

a. Neutron

b. Positron

c. Alpha

d. beta minus

d

8. Which of the following particulate radiations has an atomic mass of 1 and an atomic number of +1?

a. Neutron

b. Electron

c. Positron

d. Proton

b

9. Which of the following particulate radiations has an atomic mass of 0 and an atomic number of +1?

a. Positron

b. Proton

c. Electron

d. Hydrogen

c

10. Which of the following is the nucleus of the Helium element?

a. Proton

b. Deuteron

c. Alpha

d. Triton

11. Which of the following is the nucleus of the Hydrogen isotope with an atomic mass of 3 and an atomic number of 1?

a. Triton

b. Tritium

c. Deuterium

d. Proton

d

12. Which of the following is the nucleus of Hydrogen?

a. Triton

b. Tritium

c. Deuteron

d. Proton

a

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ionizing radiation in treating lesions?

a. Electrons and low-energy X-rays are used to treat superficial lesions.

b. High-energy Alpha particles are used to treat deep-seated lesions.

c. High-energy neutrons can penetrate tissue in a tortuous path and be used to treat superficial lesions.

d. High-energy electrons can penetrate tissue in a straight path and can be used to treat deep-seated lesions.

a

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Alpha Decay?

a. It occurs if the neutron/proton ratio is increased.

b. It occurs if the atomic mass is greater than 150.

c. It occurs if the atomic number is greater than 82.

d. It occurs if the nucleons are increased

c

15. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Beta plus

decay?

a. The transformation will emit a positron particle.

b. It occurs if the neutron and proton ratio is decreased.

c. There is an increase of atomic number of 1 after the transformation.

d. A neutrino particle will be emitted as a form of excess energy

c

16. Which of the following modes of decay is an alternative process to beta plus decay?

a. Beta minus decay

b. Internal Conversion

c. Electron Capture

d. Alpha Decay

c

17. Which of the following modes of decay is considered the opposite process of the Photoelectric Effect?

a. Beta minus decay

b. Internal Conversion

c. Electron Capture

d. Isomeric Transition

c

18. Technetium-99m is the most common radionuclide used in radiology; which of the following terms refers to the letter "m"?

a. Mother nuclide

b. Minimum energy

c. Metastable nuclide

d. Maximum energy

19. For Alpha-proton reaction, where the Nitrogen gas is bombarded with a particle and transform into Oxygen, which of the following is the emitted particle during the process?

a. Alpha

b. Proton

c. Nitrogen

d. Oxygen

b

20. In an Alpha-proton reaction, where Nitrogen gas is bombarded with a particle and transforms into Oxygen, which of the following is the emitted particle during the process?

a. Alpha

b. Proton

c. Nitrogen

d. Oxygen

a

21. Which of the following reactions refers to an interaction of a high-energy photon with an atomic nucleus that can lead to a nuclear reaction and the emission of one or more nucleons?

a. Photodisintegration

b. Fission

c. Fusion

d. Pair production

b

22. Which of the following particles is used to bombard stable Cobalt-59 in order to transform it into Cobalt-60 and emit a gamma ray?

a. Proton

b. Neutron

c. Alpha

d. Deuteron

b

23. Which of the following reactions is produced by bombarding certain high-atomic-number nuclei with neutrons, causing them to split into nuclei of lower atomic number as well as additional neutrons?

a. Photodisintegration

b. Fission

c. Fusion

d. Pair production

c

24. Which of the following types of cancer treatment uses ionizing

radiation to eradicate malignant tumors?

a. Surgery

b. Chemotherapy

c. Radiotherapy

d. Alternative medicine

25. Which of the following are the two photons per disintegration energies of Cobalt-60 (Co-60)?

a. 1.17 and 1.33 keV

b. 7.11 and 3.11 MeV

c. 7.11 and 3.11 keV

d. 1.17 and 1.33 MeV

26. Which of the following types of treatment involves the application of a radiation source distant from the tumor site?

a. Brachytherapy

b. Plesiotherapy

c. Teletherapy

d. Palliative Treatment

27. Which of the following types of treatment involves the application of a radioactive source directly to or inside the tumor site?

a. Brachytherapy

b. Prophylactic treatment

c. Teletherapy

d. Palliative Treatment

28. Which of the following is an example of a radiosensitizer?

a. Thymine

b. Cysteine (Note: Cysteine is actually a radioprotector)

c. Hydroxyurea

d. Actinomycin D

29. Which of the following procedures is also known as

"short-distance" therapy?

a. Alpha therapy

b. Proton therapy

c. Electron therapy

d. Brachytherapy

30. Which of the following ionizing radiations is emitted by the Co-60 machine?

a. X-rays

b. Gamma rays

c. Electron beam

d. Proton beam

31. This type of radiotherapy aims to apply the maximum dose to the target while sparing neighboring structures as much as possible with the aid of advanced computer software and hardware:

a. Stereotactic radiotherapy

b. Gamma knife

c. 3D conformal radiotherapy

d. Tomotherapy

32. It refers to the administration of high doses of radiotherapy in cases where other treatment modalities cannot be applied for different reasons:

a. Palliative radiotherapy

b. Prophylactic radiotherapy

c. Palliative radiotherapy with curative doses

d. Total body irradiation

33. Which of the following refers to a derivative used in photodynamic therapy (PDT) that creates cytotoxic effects when exposed to light of certain wavelengths?

a. Boron

b. Hematoporphyrin

c. Hydroxyurea

d. Cysteine

34. All of the following statements are true regarding neutrons EXCEPT:

a. Neutrons possess no electric charge.

b. It is very effective in penetrating the nuclei and producing nuclear reactions.

c. It needs to possess high kinetic energies in order to penetrate the nucleus.

d. They are extremely effective in producing nuclear transformations.

35. Bremsstrahlung radiation is produced by:

a. Conversion of projectile electron kinetic energy to

electromagnetic energy.

b. Conversion of target electron kinetic energy to electromagnetic energy.

c. Intrashell electron transitions.

d. Projectile electron-target electron interaction.

36. Which of the following X-rays would be most likely to undergo classical (Coherent) scattering?

a. 5 keV

b. 15 keV

c. 35 keV

d. 65 keV

37. Which of the following occurs in a Compton interaction?

a. An atom is excited.

b. An atom is ionized.

c. The secondary electron has kinetic energy equal to the difference between the energy of the incident x-ray and the electron binding energy.

d. The secondary electron has kinetic energy equal to the incident x-ray.

38. When a bremsstrahlung x-ray is produced:

a. A projectile electron is absorbed.

b. A projectile electron loses energy.

c. A target electron is displaced.

d. A target electron is excited.

39. The photoelectric effect is principally associated with which of the following?

a. Absorption of an x-ray

b. Bremsstrahlung x-ray production

c. Characteristic x-ray production

d. Electron excitation

40. Which of the following refers to the atomic mass unit (amu) of a proton?

a. 0.000549 (Electron)

b. 1.00867 (Neutron)

c. 1.00728 (Proton)

d. 1.00782 (Hydrogen-1 atom)

41. Which term refers to the tendency of atoms to prefer to have eight electrons in the valence shell?

a. Pauli Exclusion Principle

b. Bernoulli Principle

c. Octet Rule

d. Fleming's Rule

42. All of the following are properties of electromagnetic radiation EXCEPT:

a. It has no mass.

b. It travels at a constant velocity.

c. It has charge.

d. They travel as both particles and waves.

43. Which of the following refers to the half-life of Mo-99?

a. 66 years

b. 66 hours

c. 2.7 days

d. 30 years

44. These are electrons that are emitted when an electron from a higher energy level falls into a vacancy in an inner shell, transferring energy to an outer shell electron instead of emitting a photon:

a. Delta rays

b. Auger electron

c. Compton electron

d. Photoelectron

45. The transfer of some of the incident particles' energy to electrons in the absorbing material, promoting them to electron orbits farther from the nucleus, is referred to as:

a. Ionization

b. Radiative loss

c. Excitation

d. De-excitation

46. These are helium nuclei and are emitted by high-atomic-number radionuclides:

a. Proton

b. Electron

c. Deuteron

d. Alpha particle (Option D was cut off but implied)

47. Which of the following refers to the emission of radiation from a nucleus in the form of particles, y rays, or both?

a. Radiative loss

b. Radioactivity

c. Half-life

d. Radioactive

48. It refers to a radioactive equilibrium when the half-life of the parent radionuclide is much longer than that of the daughter:

a. Transient equilibrium

b. Secular equilibrium

c. Radioactivity

d. Disintegration

49. It refers to a process in which a nucleus in the excited state transfers its excess energy to one of the orbital electrons, causing it to be ejected from the orbit:

a. Alpha particle

b. Internal conversion

c. Isomeric transition

d. Nuclear reaction

50. This process involves an excited nucleus in the metastable state decaying to the ground state:

a. Isobaric transition

b. Internal conversion

c. Isomeric transition

d. Auger effect

51. Which of the following processes is responsible for the neutron contamination of high-energy X-ray beams (typically >10 MV) generated by linear accelerators?

a. Photoelectric effect

b. Pair production

c. Photodisintegration

d. Radiative loss

52. A process of splitting a high-Z nucleus into two lower-Z nuclei that results in the release of a large amount of energy:

a. Nuclear fission

b. Nuclear fusion

c. Nuclear reaction

d. Nuclear fision (misspelling of A)

53. Which of the following refers to the Linear Energy Transfer (LET) of diagnostic X-rays?

a. 100 keV/micrometer

b. 10 keV/micrometer

c. 3 keV/micrometer

d. 7 keV/micrometer

54. He/she first used X-rays in the treatment of skin cancer:

a. Voight Verein

b. Leopold Freund

c. Donald Kerst

d. Henry Kaplan

55. A type of radiotherapy given under intraoperative conditions, usually by electron beams or low-energy X-rays:

a. Stereotactic radiotherapy

b. Operative radiotherapy

c. Intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT)

d. Gamma knife surgery

56. This type of radiotherapy aims to apply the maximum dose to the target while sparing neighboring structures as much as possible with the aid of advanced computer software and hardware:

a. Endocurietherapy

b. Three-dimensional conformal radiotherapy (3D-CRT)

c. Stereotactic radiotherapy

d. Tomotherapy

57. This type of interaction occurs when an incident x-ray photon interacts with a tightly bound (inner-shell) electron:

a. Compton interaction

b. Classical interaction

c. Photoelectric interaction

d. Pair production

58. What does the letter "b" represent?

a. Bombarding particle

b. Resultant nucleus

c. Energy released

d. Emitted particle

59. What does the letter "X" represent?

a. Bombarding particle

b. Target nucleus

c. Energy released

d. Emitted particle

60. It refers to a process wherein the deuteron is not captured by the nucleus but passes close to it; the proton is taken from the deuteron and the neutron continues to travel at high speed:

a. Neutron bombardment

b. Stripping

c. Alpha-neutron bombardment

d. Proton bombardment

61. A type of interaction where a high-energy photon interacts with an atomic nucleus, leading to a nuclear reaction and the emission of one or more nucleons:

a. Gamma ray emission

b. Photodisintegration

c. Nuclear fission

d. Nuclear fusion

62. All of the following are forms of corpuscular (particulate) radiation EXCEPT:

a. Alpha

b. Pi meson

c. Neutron

d. Gamma

63. These are massless, uncharged particles emitted during a beta decay process:

a. Neutrino and antineutrino

b. Negatron and positron

c. Gamma rays

d. Alpha

64. Which of the following radioactive decays is known to be the alternative for positron decay?

a. Beta minus

b. Electron capture

c. Internal conversion

d. Gamma ray emission

65. Choose the characteristics of an alpha particle:

I. It has a mass twice that of the proton

II. Lightest and least penetrating

III. Emitted from the atomic nucleus

IV. It is identical to a helium nucleus

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. III and IV

d. I and IV

66. It refers to the ionized atom and the ejected electron after an

ionization event:

a. Paired atom

b. Ion pair

c. Ionizing pair

d. Ionized pair

67. Which of the following statements is true concerning our

understanding of atomic structure?

a. Rutherford described the nuclear atom.

b. Rutherford identified cathode rays as particles.

c. Rutherford is known as the "Father of Radioactivity."

d. Rutherford is responsible for the periodic table.

68. The periodic table presents the elements in the order of:

a. Atomic charge

b. Atomic mass

c. Atomic number (Z)

d. Natural occurrences

69. Atoms with all electron shells filled are:

a. Chemically reactive

b. Found in group 1 of the periodic table.

c. Gases

d. Chemically stable (Noble Gases)

70. In the periodic table of the elements, the group number (columns) identifies the:

a. Electron spin state.

b. Number of electrons in the outer (valence) shell.

c. Principal quantum number of the outermost shell.

d. Total number of electrons in the atom.

71. Which of the following physicists had a major part in describing the atom (specifically the planetary model) as we know it today?

a. Becquerel

b. Bohr

c. Curie

d. Einstein

72. Which of the following statements about atoms is true?

a. Atomic mass is equally divided between the nucleus and the electrons.

b. The atom is mostly empty space.

c. The nucleus is held together by the electrostatic proton-proton attraction.

d. The number of electrons surrounding the nucleus equals the number of neutrons.

73. The binding energy of an electron to a nucleus:

a. Increases with increasing distance from the nucleus.

b. Is higher for an L-shell electron than for an M-shell electron.

c. Is higher for a low-Z atom than for a high-Z atom.

d. Is higher for an N-shell than for an M-shell.

74. Which of the following refers to a particle accelerator that is used to produce radioisotopes (like F-18 for PET)?

a. Linear accelerator

b. Cyclotron

c. PET

d. Molytech generator

75. Radioactive half-life (T{1/2}) is the time:

a. It takes for half of the dose to be delivered.

b. It takes for the activity (or number of atoms) to be reduced to half its initial value.

c. It takes for one atom to disintegrate.

d. Required for radioactivity to reach one-half of its original value.

76. How many half-lives must elapse before the remaining activity is less than 0.1% of the original activity?

a. 4 half-lives

b. 6 half-lives

c. 8 half-lives

d. 10 half-lives

77. Isotopes are:

a. Atoms that have identical mass and atomic numbers.

b. Atoms that have the same atomic mass number but different atomic numbers.

c. Atoms that have the same atomic number but a different atomic mass number.

d. Molecules that consist of identical atoms

78. Which of the following statements refers to an alpha particle?

a. Radiation that cannot penetrate a sheet of paper.

b. Spontaneous emission of energy or particles from unstable nuclei.

c. Uncharged radiation; highly penetrating.

d. Usually produced by particle accelerators from common elements.

79. The number of protons in the nucleus is called the:

a. Atomic number (Z)

b. Elemental charge

c. Ionization state

d. Mass

80. A neutron has approximately:

a. 1/2000 atomic mass unit (amu) and no charge.

b. 1 amu and no charge.

c. 1 amu and a charge of +1.

d. 4 amu and a charge of +2

81. A metastable radionuclide decays by emitting gamma radiation only. Which statement best explains why the element remains unchanged?

a. Gamma emission removes excess nuclear binding energy.

b. No nuclear particles (protons or neutrons) are involved in the decay.

c. Orbital electrons absorb the excess energy.

d. The decay involves annihilation radiation.

82. A radionuclide exhibits both physical decay and biological elimination in a patient. Which half-life best predicts the observed decrease in detected activity over time?

a. Physical half-life only

b. Biological half-life only

c. Effective half-life

d. Mean life

83. Two radionuclides start with the same activity, but one decays faster than the other. Which property primarily explains this difference?

a. Initial activity

b. Type of emitted radiation

c. Decay constant (λ)

d. Energy of emitted photons

84. In alpha decay, the daughter nucleus shows a significantly lower atomic number and mass number. Which inference best explains why alpha emitters are rarely used for imaging?

a. Alpha particles have low ionizing power.

b. Alpha particles have limited tissue penetration (high LET).

c. Alpha decay produces no photons.

d. Alpha particles are electrically neutral.

85. A radionuclide decays by electron capture rather than positron emission. Which condition most strongly favors electron capture?

a. Excess neutrons in the nucleus.

b. Insufficient energy (less than 1.02 MeV) for positron emission.

c. High atomic mass number.

d. Presence of metastable states.

86. What best describes radioactive decay according to the radioactive decay law?

a. It occurs only when energy is supplied to the nucleus.

b. It happens at a constant rate independent of the number of atoms present.

c. It is a random process but predictable for large numbers of nuclei.

d. It stops once half of the atoms have decayed.

87. Why does the activity of a radionuclide decrease exponentially with time?

a. The energy of emitted radiation decreases with time.

b. Fewer unstable nuclei remain available to decay.

c. The decay constant changes over time.

d. Daughter nuclides suppress further decay.

88. Which statement correctly explains beta minus (beta-) decay?

a. A proton is converted into a neutron with positron emission.

b. A neutron converts into a proton with electron emission.

c. A nucleus emits a helium nucleus.

d. An orbital electron is absorbed by the nucleus.

89. What is the primary difference between positron emission and electron capture?

a. Only positron emission changes the atomic number.

b. Positron emission requires no energy.

c. Electron capture does not produce annihilation photons.

d. Electron capture increases the mass number.

90. Why does isomeric transition not result in a change in atomic number or mass number?

a. Only excess nuclear energy is released (as a gamma ray).

b. The nucleus emits charged particles.

c. The decay involves orbital electrons.

d. The decay occurs outside the nucleus.

91. What happens immediately after a positron is emitted from the nucleus?

a. It is absorbed by the nucleus.

b. It converts into a neutron.

c. It travels a short distance before undergoing annihilation with an electron.

d. It produces characteristic x-rays.

92. How does half-life relate to radioactive decay?

a. It is the time required for all nuclei to decay.

b. It depends on environmental conditions.

c. It represents the time for activity to decrease by half.

d. It varies with the amount of radionuclide present.

93. Why is alpha decay more common in very heavy nuclei?

a. Heavy nuclei have excess binding energy.

b. Alpha particles are easier to emit than gamma rays.

c. Heavy nuclei tend to be unstable due to their large size and high proton count.

d. Alpha decay increases the atomic number

94. Which product is always emitted during beta minus decay but is virtually impossible to detect in imaging?

a. Positron

b. Antineutrino (or Neutrino)

c. Gamma photon

d. Alpha particle

95. What best explains why gamma radiation often follows particulate decay?

a. Gamma rays are emitted to balance atomic number changes.

b. The daughter nucleus is often left in an excited state.

c. Gamma rays initiate radioactive decay.

d. Gamma emission converts neutrons into protons.

96. A radionuclide has a half-life of 6 hours. What is the remaining activity after 18 hours if the initial activity is 800 MBq?

a. 400 MBq

b. 200 MBq

c. 100 MBq

d. 50 MBq

97. A radionuclide has a half-life of 4 hours and the current activity is 25 MBq. What was the activity 8 hours earlier?

a. 50 MBq

b. 75 MBq

c. 100 MBq

d. 200 MBq

98. How much activity remains after 3 half-lives of a radionuclide?

a. 50%

b. 25%

c. 12.5%

d. 6.25%

99. A radionuclide has a half-life of 5 hours. How long ago was the activity 80 mCi if it is 10 mCi now?

a. 5 hours

b. 10 hours

c. 15 hours

d. 20 hours

100. A sample is found to have 25% of its original activity remaining. How many half-lives have elapsed?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4