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Tx for vasoocclusive pain crisis?
Morphine
Sickle Cell key protection against which pathogens?
S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meninigiditis
Key risk with zidovudine?
Anemia (hematologic tox)
First line options for ART treatment - treatment naive?
One Pill: Biktarvy (bicte/emtric/TAF), Triumeq (dolute/aba/lam), Dovato (dolute/lamv)
Two Pill: Tivicay (Dolute) + Truvada (emtri/TDF), Tivicay (Dolute) + Descovy (emtri/TAF)
Compounding hazardous: what goes in yellow bin?
Things with trace amounts of hazardous materials
Typhoid formulations?
Capsules (live) and injection (inactivated)
Class of Roflumilast (Daliresp)
PDE-4 inhibitor
St. John's Wort interactions/risks
Increased risk of serotonin syndrome, sensitivity to sun, strong CYP3A4 inducer and other CYP enzymes, decreases effects of other meds, lowers seizure threshold
Laculose MOA
Decreases ammonia levels via...
- conversion of GI ammonia to ammonium
- increasing GI motility
Which vitamin D is synthesized in skin with UV exposure?
Cholecalciferol (D3)
mmol=
mg/MW
Natural products for osteoarthritis?
- Turmeric
- SAMe
- glucosamine & chondroitin
Breastfeeding babies need how much iron daily from 4-6 months old?
1 mg/kg
Breastfed babies or receiving <1 L of formula day: vitamin D amount?
400 IU daily
Lithium monitoring?
SCr, BUN, TSH, and FT4
Natural products for dementia?
Vitamin E and ginkgo biloba
Class: Addyi/Fibanserin? Use?
5-HT1A agonist and 5-HT2A antagonist
Use: hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD)
Risks and what to avoid with Addyi/Fibanserin?
Only use if pre-menopause and avoid alcohol due to hypotension/syncope risk
Major Dexilant DDI's?
Altevia (risedronate DR), itraconazole, ketoconazole, iron
Class of eluxadoline? Schedule?
Peripherally-acting mu-opioid agonist
Schedule C-IV
Meningitis empiric treatment for >50 years or immunocompromised?
Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone/Ceftazidime + Vancomycin
Which CYP enzyme is not inducible?
CYP 2D6
What to avoid with IVIG and make sure you do what with your rate?
Avoid sucrose, IV gentamicin and IV vancomycin and slow infusion rate
Diclofenac patch frequency?
BID
Do not use with analgesic with a salicylate allergy?
APAP
Max dose of vincristine?
2 mg
What does the "a" in DTaP mean?
Acellular - only partial for pertussis
Options for moderate-severe Crohn's disease?
Infliximab, Natalizumab, Adalizumab and Certolizumab
Generic: Marplan
isocarboxazid
PAH mainstay of therapy if positively reacts to vasoreactivity test?
Non-DHP CCB's and diltiazem
Which azole needs an acidic environment for absorption?
Ketoconazole
Tadalafil ___ cGMP levels.
Increases
Arnuity Ellipta
Fluticasone furoate
Weak acids and bases when ionized are more?
Water soluble
Weak acids and bases when un-ionized are more?
Lipid soluble
Treatment for severe croup?
Dexamethasone and nebulizer racemic epinephrine
SE's with indomethacin?
High risk of GI issues and psych disturbances
Class of Etanercept?
TNF-alpha inhibitor
Generic: Revatio
Sildenafil
Which flu vaccine is for >18 years and egg-free?
FluBlok
Which alpha blocker can cause retrograde ejaculation?
Silodosin
Pylera includes? Use with?
Bismuth salicylate, metronidazole, and tetracycline
Use with PPI BID
Class, Formulations and Frequency: Boniva
Ibandronate
Tablet monthly or injection Q3M
Dihydroergatamine formulations?
SC, IM and nasal
Generic: Vistaril
Hydroxyzine
Starting dose of sildenafil for ED?
50 mg
Generic: Lotrel
Amlodipine/Benazepril
Etanercept BBW
Serious infections, malignancies
All NRTIs have a warning for:
lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis
Lomotil (diphenoxylate/atropine) schedule?
C-V
Natalizumab BBW
Progressive multi focal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
*only available through REMS TOUCH prescribing program
IBD rectal foam formulations for:
Hydrocortisone and budesonide
Class of Infliximab (Remicade)
TNF-alpha inhibitor
Generic: Entyvio
Vedolizumab
SE's with epoetin alfa?
Arthralgias, HTN, risk of MI and VTE
Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?
pallor, irritability, glossitis, anorexia, SOB and decrease in activity; sometimes a slight heart murmur is heard
Preferred steroid treatment for Addison's disease?
Fludrocortisone
Generic and formulation: Mylicon
Infant simethicone drops
Which opioid can decrease testosterone levels?
Testosterone
Treprostenol is associated with what at the SC infusion site?
Pain
Generic: Jantoven
Warfarin
Belatacept needs what prior to initiation?
EBV immunity
Why is Foirinal a C-III?
Contains butalbital
Generic: Dulera
mometasone/formoterol
Teriparatide does what to calcium?
Increases it (hyperCa)
Denosumab, bisphosphonates and calcitonin do what to calcium?
Decrease it (hypoCa)
Generic: Solodyn
Minocycline
Generic: Evista
Raloxifene
Generic: Nasacort Allergy 24 HR
Triamcinolone
What follow patients forward in time to see if exposure leads to an outcome (prospective).
Cohort studies
What start with patients who already have the outcome and look backward to determine exposures (retrospective)
Case-control studies
Type of Bias: occurs when a third variable affects both the exposure and the outcome potentially distorting the observed relationship.
Confounding
Example of a high-risk sterile compounding activity according to USP <797>?
Preparing a sterile solution using nonsterile powder
Type of Bias: arises when participants drop out of a study and the dropout is related to the outcome, potentially skewing the results.
Attrition bias
Type of Bias: relates to non-random selection, recall bias to inaccuracies in remembering past events, and observer bias to the influence of researchers' expectations.
Selection bias
Which test compares the means of two separate groups (e.g., treatment vs. placebo)?
An independent (unpaired) t-test
Which test is used for the same subjects measured twice?
Paired t-test
What test is used when comparing more than two groups?
ANOVA
What test is for categorical data?
Chi-square
Preferred SSRI for breastfeeding?
Sertraline
Type of Bias: occurs when the expectations or behavior of the researchers influence the care provided or the assessment of outcomes. Blinding is used to minimize such bias.
Observer bias
Prostaglandin analogs (e.g., latanoprost) MOA?
Increase uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor.
Tetrahydrozoline (Visine): use and class?
Decongestant for ocular redness.
Dorzolamide eye drops: class and use?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that decreases aqueous production.
Timolol: class and use?
Beta-blocker that decreases aqueous humor production.
Symptoms of serotonin syndrome?
Agitation, confusion, diaphoresis, muscle rigidity, tachycardia and hyperthermia.
Why does atazanavir cause jaundice due to indirect hyperbilirubinemia?
it inhibits UGT1A1 enzyme
Fat redistribution (e.g., "buffalo hump") is a side effect of which HIV class?
Protease inhibitors
According to ACS guidelines, what is the recommended door-to-balloon (PCI) time goal for STEMI patients?
90 minutes
Spiriva Respimat dosing and frequency
Use 2 inhalations once daily for MDI/DPI
Counseling points for ProAir RespiClick
- Albuterol
- RespiClick = DPI
- Do not shake or use a spacer
- Deep, quick breath in
After reconstitution, Flolan must be what?
Kept cool with ice packs for stability.
Generic: Flolan
Epoprostenol
Generic: Boostrix
Tdap
Generic: Adacel
Tdap
Varivax CI?
True allergy to neomycin or gelatin
Generic and class: Humira?
Adalimumab and TNF inhibitor
Which HBV medication needs to be taken on an empty stomach?
Entecavir/Baraclude
What are the first-line NRTIs used as monotherapy for hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection?
Entecavir
Tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)
What boxed warning is associated with NRTIs used for HBV?
HBV reactivation after therapy discontinuation