Things to Review - UWorld RxPrep

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204 Terms

1
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Tx for vasoocclusive pain crisis?

Morphine

2
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Sickle Cell key protection against which pathogens?

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meninigiditis

3
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Key risk with zidovudine?

Anemia (hematologic tox)

4
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First line options for ART treatment - treatment naive?

One Pill: Biktarvy (bicte/emtric/TAF), Triumeq (dolute/aba/lam), Dovato (dolute/lamv)

Two Pill: Tivicay (Dolute) + Truvada (emtri/TDF), Tivicay (Dolute) + Descovy (emtri/TAF)

5
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Compounding hazardous: what goes in yellow bin?

Things with trace amounts of hazardous materials

6
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Typhoid formulations?

Capsules (live) and injection (inactivated)

7
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Class of Roflumilast (Daliresp)

PDE-4 inhibitor

8
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St. John's Wort interactions/risks

Increased risk of serotonin syndrome, sensitivity to sun, strong CYP3A4 inducer and other CYP enzymes, decreases effects of other meds, lowers seizure threshold

9
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Laculose MOA

Decreases ammonia levels via...

- conversion of GI ammonia to ammonium

- increasing GI motility

10
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Which vitamin D is synthesized in skin with UV exposure?

Cholecalciferol (D3)

11
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mmol=

mg/MW

12
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Natural products for osteoarthritis?

- Turmeric

- SAMe

- glucosamine & chondroitin

13
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Breastfeeding babies need how much iron daily from 4-6 months old?

1 mg/kg

14
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Breastfed babies or receiving <1 L of formula day: vitamin D amount?

400 IU daily

15
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Lithium monitoring?

SCr, BUN, TSH, and FT4

16
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Natural products for dementia?

Vitamin E and ginkgo biloba

17
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Class: Addyi/Fibanserin? Use?

5-HT1A agonist and 5-HT2A antagonist

Use: hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD)

18
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Risks and what to avoid with Addyi/Fibanserin?

Only use if pre-menopause and avoid alcohol due to hypotension/syncope risk

19
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Major Dexilant DDI's?

Altevia (risedronate DR), itraconazole, ketoconazole, iron

20
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Class of eluxadoline? Schedule?

Peripherally-acting mu-opioid agonist

Schedule C-IV

21
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Meningitis empiric treatment for >50 years or immunocompromised?

Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone/Ceftazidime + Vancomycin

22
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Which CYP enzyme is not inducible?

CYP 2D6

23
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What to avoid with IVIG and make sure you do what with your rate?

Avoid sucrose, IV gentamicin and IV vancomycin and slow infusion rate

24
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Diclofenac patch frequency?

BID

25
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Do not use with analgesic with a salicylate allergy?

APAP

26
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Max dose of vincristine?

2 mg

27
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What does the "a" in DTaP mean?

Acellular - only partial for pertussis

28
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Options for moderate-severe Crohn's disease?

Infliximab, Natalizumab, Adalizumab and Certolizumab

29
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Generic: Marplan

isocarboxazid

30
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PAH mainstay of therapy if positively reacts to vasoreactivity test?

Non-DHP CCB's and diltiazem

31
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Which azole needs an acidic environment for absorption?

Ketoconazole

32
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Tadalafil ___ cGMP levels.

Increases

33
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Arnuity Ellipta

Fluticasone furoate

34
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Weak acids and bases when ionized are more?

Water soluble

35
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Weak acids and bases when un-ionized are more?

Lipid soluble

36
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Treatment for severe croup?

Dexamethasone and nebulizer racemic epinephrine

37
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SE's with indomethacin?

High risk of GI issues and psych disturbances

38
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Class of Etanercept?

TNF-alpha inhibitor

39
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Generic: Revatio

Sildenafil

40
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Which flu vaccine is for >18 years and egg-free?

FluBlok

41
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Which alpha blocker can cause retrograde ejaculation?

Silodosin

42
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Pylera includes? Use with?

Bismuth salicylate, metronidazole, and tetracycline

Use with PPI BID

43
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Class, Formulations and Frequency: Boniva

Ibandronate

Tablet monthly or injection Q3M

44
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Dihydroergatamine formulations?

SC, IM and nasal

45
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Generic: Vistaril

Hydroxyzine

46
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Starting dose of sildenafil for ED?

50 mg

47
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Generic: Lotrel

Amlodipine/Benazepril

48
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Etanercept BBW

Serious infections, malignancies

49
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All NRTIs have a warning for:

lactic acidosis and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis

50
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Lomotil (diphenoxylate/atropine) schedule?

C-V

51
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Natalizumab BBW

Progressive multi focal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

*only available through REMS TOUCH prescribing program

52
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IBD rectal foam formulations for:

Hydrocortisone and budesonide

53
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Class of Infliximab (Remicade)

TNF-alpha inhibitor

54
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Generic: Entyvio

Vedolizumab

55
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SE's with epoetin alfa?

Arthralgias, HTN, risk of MI and VTE

56
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Symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?

pallor, irritability, glossitis, anorexia, SOB and decrease in activity; sometimes a slight heart murmur is heard

57
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Preferred steroid treatment for Addison's disease?

Fludrocortisone

58
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Generic and formulation: Mylicon

Infant simethicone drops

59
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Which opioid can decrease testosterone levels?

Testosterone

60
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Treprostenol is associated with what at the SC infusion site?

Pain

61
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Generic: Jantoven

Warfarin

62
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Belatacept needs what prior to initiation?

EBV immunity

63
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Why is Foirinal a C-III?

Contains butalbital

64
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Generic: Dulera

mometasone/formoterol

65
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Teriparatide does what to calcium?

Increases it (hyperCa)

66
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Denosumab, bisphosphonates and calcitonin do what to calcium?

Decrease it (hypoCa)

67
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Generic: Solodyn

Minocycline

68
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Generic: Evista

Raloxifene

69
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Generic: Nasacort Allergy 24 HR

Triamcinolone

70
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What follow patients forward in time to see if exposure leads to an outcome (prospective).

Cohort studies

71
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What start with patients who already have the outcome and look backward to determine exposures (retrospective)

Case-control studies

72
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Type of Bias: occurs when a third variable affects both the exposure and the outcome potentially distorting the observed relationship.

Confounding

73
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Example of a high-risk sterile compounding activity according to USP <797>?

Preparing a sterile solution using nonsterile powder

74
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Type of Bias: arises when participants drop out of a study and the dropout is related to the outcome, potentially skewing the results.

Attrition bias

75
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Type of Bias: relates to non-random selection, recall bias to inaccuracies in remembering past events, and observer bias to the influence of researchers' expectations.

Selection bias

76
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Which test compares the means of two separate groups (e.g., treatment vs. placebo)?

An independent (unpaired) t-test

77
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Which test is used for the same subjects measured twice?

Paired t-test

78
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What test is used when comparing more than two groups?

ANOVA

79
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What test is for categorical data?

Chi-square

80
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Preferred SSRI for breastfeeding?

Sertraline

81
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Type of Bias: occurs when the expectations or behavior of the researchers influence the care provided or the assessment of outcomes. Blinding is used to minimize such bias.

Observer bias

82
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Prostaglandin analogs (e.g., latanoprost) MOA?

Increase uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor.

83
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Tetrahydrozoline (Visine): use and class?

Decongestant for ocular redness.

84
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Dorzolamide eye drops: class and use?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that decreases aqueous production.

85
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Timolol: class and use?

Beta-blocker that decreases aqueous humor production.

86
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Symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

Agitation, confusion, diaphoresis, muscle rigidity, tachycardia and hyperthermia.

87
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Why does atazanavir cause jaundice due to indirect hyperbilirubinemia?

it inhibits UGT1A1 enzyme

88
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Fat redistribution (e.g., "buffalo hump") is a side effect of which HIV class?

Protease inhibitors

89
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According to ACS guidelines, what is the recommended door-to-balloon (PCI) time goal for STEMI patients?

90 minutes

90
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Spiriva Respimat dosing and frequency

Use 2 inhalations once daily for MDI/DPI

91
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Counseling points for ProAir RespiClick

- Albuterol

- RespiClick = DPI

- Do not shake or use a spacer

- Deep, quick breath in

92
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After reconstitution, Flolan must be what?

Kept cool with ice packs for stability.

93
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Generic: Flolan

Epoprostenol

94
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Generic: Boostrix

Tdap

95
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Generic: Adacel

Tdap

96
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Varivax CI?

True allergy to neomycin or gelatin

97
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Generic and class: Humira?

Adalimumab and TNF inhibitor

98
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Which HBV medication needs to be taken on an empty stomach?

Entecavir/Baraclude

99
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What are the first-line NRTIs used as monotherapy for hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection?

Entecavir

Tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF)

100
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What boxed warning is associated with NRTIs used for HBV?

HBV reactivation after therapy discontinuation