CDC Module 1

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Last updated 7:45 PM on 2/2/26
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112 Terms

1
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What are the three basic situations where coding occurs?

  • Diagnosis

  • Procedures

  • Productivity

2
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In regards to coding, not tracking services could cause…

  • Misdiagnosis

  • Clinic not getting credit for productivity

3
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What coding process is used for diagnosis?

  • International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision (ICD-10) codes

4
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What are the ICD-10 prefixes?

  • F-prefix (e.g. F33.0 MDD, Recurrent, Mild)

    • Pt meets diagnostic criteria

  • Z-prefix, T-prefix, or R-prefix

    • Pt either did not meet diagnostic criteria or they meet non-diagnostic conditions

5
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What coding process is used for procedures?

  • Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Codes

6
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What are some actions that CPT codes describe?

  • Initial eval

  • Short/long-term psychotherapy

  • Individual/group psychotherapy services

  • CDE

  • Starting medications or making phone calls (t-cons)

7
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Why is CPT coding strict?

  • Involves how much a pt will pay for a service

8
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What are PLA codes?

  • Alpha-numeric CPT codes used for lab testing

9
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What coding process is used for productivity?

  • Therapists = Procedure Codes

  • Physicians and PNPs who are adding MM to their psychotherapy must add a pre-defined E+M code to their psychotherapy codes

10
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Who officially reviews coded data?

  • Personnel in the MTF and Major Command (MAJCOM)

11
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According to DHA, how is the term peer review defined?

  • Any assessment of the quality of medical care carried out by a healthcare provider

12
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For peer review, how often are all active records reviewed?

  • On a semiannual basis to ensure that all admin tasks have been appropriately accomplished

13
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What percentage of all cases must be peer reviewed each month?

  • At least 5%

14
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Due to the sensitive nature of information, peer reviews are done…

  • Internally by exchanging client records among providers

15
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For peer review, what does quality documentation and accurate descriptions of services provided accomplish?

  • Enhances pt care

  • Ensures continuity of care

16
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Which two AF publications provide guidance for peer reviews?

  • AFI 44-172, MH

  • DAFI 44-119, Medical Quality

17
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Peer review is a tool to identify and correct (through education and/or remediation) concerns in care/documentation that…

  • Do not meet standard of care

  • Could expose providers to medicolegal liability

  • Cause harm to a pt before they become problematic

18
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For peer review, providing feedback for improvement does NOT translate to…

  • Loss of privilege

  • Prevent renewal of privileges in a facility

19
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What is the result of peer review?

  • Improves pt care through…

    • Communication

    • Education

    • Health system improvement

20
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What is the importance of peer review?

  • Preventing harm

  • Increase the reliability of safe and high-quality clinical outcomes

21
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What are the 3 electronic peer review forms?

  • AF Peer Review Worksheet for BH Providers and Paraprofessionals

  • FA Strength-based Therapy (FAST) 

  • FA Maltreatment

22
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What are the 4 roles of the clinical supervisor?

  • Teacher

  • Coach

  • Consultant

  • Mentor/Role Model

23
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For clinical supervisors, describe the teacher role.

  • Identify learning needs

  • Promote self-awareness

  • Transmit knowledge for practical use and professional growth

24
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For clinical supervisors, describe the coach role.

  • Provide morale building

  • Asses strengths and needs

  • Suggest clinical approaches

  • Prevent burnout

25
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For clinical supervisors, describe the consultant role.

  • Review cases

  • Monitor performance

  • Provide alternate case conceptualizations

  • Ensure professional gatekeeping

26
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For clinical supervisors, describe the mentor/role model role.

  • Facilitate professional development

  • Train next generation of supervisors 

27
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What are the 4 models of clinical supervision?

  • Competency based

  • Treatment based

  • Developmental

  • Integrated

28
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Describe competency based models?

  • Focus on skills and learning needs of supervisee

  • Goals are SMART

29
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What are the key strategies of competency based models?

  • Modeling role reversal, role playing, and practice

  • Using demonstrations

  • Using various supervisory functions (e.g. teaching, consulting, counseling)

30
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Describe treatment based supervision models.

  • Train to a theoretical approach, incorporating EBPs like…

    • Motivational interviewing

    • CBT

    • Psycho-dynamic psychotherapy

31
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Describe developmental models of clinical supervision.

  • Recognize that counselors go through different stages of development, which can be affected by changes in…

    • Assignment

    • Setting

    • Population served

32
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What is the purpose of clinical supervision?

  • Improved client care and job performance

33
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What is the purpose of administrative supervision?

  • Ensure compliance with agency and regulatory body

34
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What is the purpose of counseling?

  • Personal growth

  • Behavior changes

  • Better self-understanding

35
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What is the outcome of clinical supervision?

  • Enhanced proficiency

36
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What is the time-frame for clinical and administrative supervision?

  • Short-term and ongoing

37
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What is the agenda for clinical supervision?

  • Based on agency mission and counselor needs

38
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What is the agenda for administrative supervision?

  • Based on agency needs

39
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What is the basic process for clinical supervision?

  • Teaching/learning specific skills

  • Evaluating job performance

  • Negotiating learning objectives

40
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What are the six stages in the continuum of cultural competency?

  • Cultural Destructiveness

  • Cultural Incapacity

  • Cultural Blindness

  • Cultural Openness (Sensitivity)

  • Cultural Competence

  • Cultural Proficiency

41
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Cultural Destructiveness

  • Active discrimination

42
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Cultural Incapacity

  • Passive discrimination

43
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Cultural Blindness

  • Discrimination by ignoring culture

44
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Cultural Openness (Sensitivity)

  • Working with minority populations

45
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Cultural Competence

  • Working with complex issues and cultural nuances

46
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Cultural Proficiency

  • Commitment to excellence and proactive effort

47
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What are the 7 principles of DHA’s RRC?

  • Preoccupation with failure

  • Sensitivity to operations

  • Deference to expertise

  • Respect for people

  • Commitment to resilience

  • Constancy of purpose

  • Reluctance to simplify

48
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[RRC Principles] Preoccupation with failure

  • Drive zero harm by anticipating and addressing risks

49
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[RRC Principles] Sensitivity to operations

  • Be mindful of how people, processes, and systems impact outcomes

50
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[RRC Principles] Deference to expertise

  • Seek guidance from those with the most relevant knowledge and experience

51
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[RRC Principles] Respect for people

  • Foster mutual trust and respect

52
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[RRC Principles] Commitment to resilience

  • Leverage past mistakes to learn, grow, and improve processes

53
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[RRC Principles] Constancy of purpose

  • Persist through adversity towards the common goal of zero harm

54
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[RRC Principles] Reluctancy to simplify

  • Strive to understand complexities and address root causes

55
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What are the 4 domains of change in RRC?

  • Leadership commitment

  • Culture of safety

  • Continuous process improvement

  • Patient centeredness 

56
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What are the responsibilities of the DHA director?

  • HCA of each military MTF, including:

    • Budget

    • IT

    • Management

    • Policy and procedure

    • Construction

    • Any other matters SecDef determines appropriate

57
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What is the commander of each military MTF responsible for?

  • Ensuring readiness

  • Furnishing

58
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DHA Assistant Director

  • A career appointee reporting directly to the director

59
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DHA Deputy Assistant Directors

  • Responsible for…

    • Info ops

    • Financial ops

    • Healthcare ops

    • Medical affairs

  • Report to assistant director

60
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Why were MHS COEs established?

  • Provide DoD with ability to speed advancement of scientific knowledge and EBPs for diagnosis/treatment of diseases/conditions that impact SMs and their families with the help of a “critical mass” of experts

61
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What do medical centers consist of?

  • Large, tertiary-care facilities that provide a full range of medical services, including ER, surgery, and specialized treatments

  • Graduate and residency programs

  • They may designate a medical center as a regional COE for unique and highly specialized services (including polytrauma, organ transplantation, and burn care)

62
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Why is the SecDef important?

  • Maintains military…

    • MTFs (in consultation with other military Secretaries)

    • Medical centers (with high population of SMs and beneficiaries)

    • Hospitals (where civilian facilities are unable to support the needs of SMs and beneficiaries)

    • Ambulatory care centers (where civilian facilities are able to support the needs of SMs and beneficiaries)

63
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What do hospitals consist of?

  • Inpatient/outpatient services to maintain medical readiness

  • 24-hour emergency care

  • Surgery

  • Any other program/functions that SecDef determines appropriate

64
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What do ambulatory care centers consist of?

  • Outpatient services with limited speciality care that SecDef determines is…

    • Cost effective

    • Not available at civilian facilities in the area

  • Partnerships with civilian facilities (section 706, NDAA for FY17)

65
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What are satellite COEs?

  • SecDef may establish these to provide speciality care for certain conditions like…

    • PTSD

    • TBI

    • Any others approved by SecDef

66
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In addition to U.S.C. Title 10, what did the NDAA sign into law for FY 2008?

  • A congressional mandate for the creation of COEs for PTSD and TBI within the DoD

    • This led to the establishment of DCoE, which was later reorganized to DHA’s PHCoE and TBICoE

67
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Medical Groups

  • Smaller facilities that provide primary care, outpatient services, and limited speciality care

68
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Medical Squadrons

  • Smaller units that provide medical support to specific USAF bases/installations

69
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Clinics

  • Outpatient facilities that provide primary care, preventative medicine, and limited specialty care

70
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Which term best describes the principle(s) DHA uses to advance its practices across the MHS?

  • RRC

71
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DoD PSP Goals (Quadruple Aim)

  • Patient experience

  • Population health

  • Lower costs (healthcare)

  • Care team well-being (improving work life and well-being of team)

72
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DoD PSP Provisioning

  • Provides products, services, and support enabling frontline healthcare personnel to eliminate harm and promote a culture of safety

73
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What are the DoD PSP’s primary functions?

  • Manage patient safety (PS) events

  • Support a learning organization

  • Foster a culture of safety

74
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What must all MHS direct care facilities (MTFs) do regarding PS events?

  • Report all PS events to the DOD PSP through Joint Patient Safety Reporting (JPSR) system

75
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What is a PS event?

  • An incident or condition that could have resulted in, or did result, in harm to pt

76
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What are the 4 main types of PS events?

  • Adverse events

  • No-harm events

  • Near-miss events

  • Unsafe/hazardous conditions

77
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[PS Event] Adverse Event

  • Resulted in harm to pt

  • Event may occur by the omission/commission of medical care

78
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[PS Event] No-Harm Event

  • Reached pt but did not cause harm

79
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[PS Event] Near-Miss Event

  • Did not reach pt (close call, good catch)

80
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[PS Event] Unsafe/Hazardous Condition

  • Increases the probability of an adverse event

81
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What are 2 other PS event types?

  • Potentially Compensable Event (PCE)

  • Intentional Unsafe Act

82
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[PS Other Event] PCE

  • Reaches patient

  • Has a HRM assessment that determines possible financial loss to the federal government

  • All DOD REs are PCEs

  • Will be referred to PS manager to ensure capture in JPSR

83
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[PS Other Event] Intentional Unsafe Act

  • Any alleged or suspected act or omission that involves…

    • A criminal act

    • Purposefully unsafe act

    • Pt abuse

    • Substance abuse

  • Matters for law enforcement, disciplinary system, or administrative investigation

84
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What must be reported to the appropriate HRM Program for assessment? 

  • Any PS event that reaches pt (adverse and no-harm events)

85
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What is harm?

  • Any physical or psychological injury or damage to the health of a person, including temporary and permanent injury

86
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What is the Agency of Healthcare Research and Quality’s (AHRQ) Harm Scale used for?

  • To assign harm to PS events recorded in JPSR, Global Trigger Tool (GTT), and Joint Centralized Credentials Quality Assurance System (JCCQAS)

87
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Agency of Healthcare Research and Quality’s (AHRQ) Harm Scale

  • A - Death

  • B - Servere Harm

  • C - Moderate Harm

  • D - Mild Harm

  • E - No Harm

  • F - Unknown

88
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[Harm Scale] A - Death

  • Death at time of assessment

89
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[Harm Scale] B - Severe Harm

  • Bodily or psychological injury that interferes significantly with functional ability or quality of life

90
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[Harm Scale] C - Moderate Harm

  • Bodily or psychological injury adversely affection functional ability or quality of life

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[Harm Scale] D - Mild Harm

  • Bodily or psychological injury resulting in minimal symptoms or loss of function

92
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[Harm Scale] E - No Harm

  • Event reached pt, but no harm evident

93
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Scale of Duration of Harm to Pt

  • A - Permanent (1 year or greater)

  • B - Temporary (less than 1 year)

  • C - Unknown

94
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DOD REs

  • Any PS event resulting in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm

  • Besides JPSR, they have additional reporting and notification requirements

95
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Comprehensive Systematic Analysis (CSA)

  • Thorough, credible, and acceptable analysis following PS event

  • Seeks to identify system vulnerabilities to be eliminated or mitigated in a sustainable manner to prevent reoccurrence

  • Root cause analysis (RCA) is one type of CSA

  • Also can be conducted for performance improvement purposes for events that have the potential to be catastrophic

96
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What are the 5 guidelines that support the identification of causal factors in CSAs?

  • Clearly show cause and effect relationships

  • Use specifics and accurate descriptions of events

  • Human errors must have a preceding cause

  • Violations in procedure must have a preceding cause

  • Failure to act is only causal when there’s a pre-existing duty to act

97
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Corrective Action Implementation (CAI) Plan Report

  • Includes…

    • Solutions

    • Corrective actions implemented

    • Measures of effectives/sustainment of corrective actions implemented (reducing/eliminating risk of reoccurrences)

98
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Proactive Risk Assessment (PRA)

  • Process used to identify, rate, prioritize risks and/or hazards

99
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What is a form of PRA?

  • Failure Mode Effect Analysis (FMEA)

    • A systematic, proactive method for evaluating a process to identify…

      • Failures

      • Impact or failures

      • Parts of process that need change the most

100
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Describe 3 methods PS event reports are collected through.

  • Anonymous, self-reported PS events through JPSR

  • Harm surveillance data using GTT methodology

  • Administrative data related to pt harm collected through other programs