RTIs and other herd diseases including poultry

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206 Terms

1
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What is the primary host for B. Abortus?

Cattle

2
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What are the primary hosts for B. Melitensis?

Sheep and goats

3
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What is the primary transmission route for Brucella?

Venereal, ingestion, contact with infected animals, contaminated dairy products

4
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What are the key reproductive clinical signs for Brucella?

Abortion >5 mo with retained placenta, infertility in females, orchitis and epididymitis in males

5
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What is the reportable status of B. Abortus?

Notifiable - make contact within 24 hrs

6
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What is the control for Brucella?

Vaccination w/ RB51, testing, removal of reactors, depopulation

7
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What is the primary host for bovine genital campy / vibriosis?

Cattle

8
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What is the primary transmission route for vibriosis?

Venereal

9
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What are the key reproductive clinical signs of vibriosis?

Infertility, abortion

10
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Is vibriosis zoonotic? What is the reportable status?

Zoonotic and monitored - report within 30 days

11
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What is the control of vibriosis?

Vaccination available, biosecurity measures

12
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What is the primary host for Chlamydiosis/ enzootic abortion?

goats and sheep

13
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What is the primary transmission route for chlamydiosis?

Ingestion, inhalation, venereal. Shed in placenta/ uterine discharges

14
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What are the key clinical signs of chylamdiosis?

Late term abortion, still birth, weak kids. Most common cause of abortion in goats in USA

15
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What is the zoonotic status and reportable status for chlamydiosis?

Zoonotic and can cause severe issues with pregnant women. Monitored dz

16
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What is the control for chlamysiosis?

Vaccine available for sheep. Isolate and treat animals with tetracycline

17
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What are the main hosts for Q fever?

Cattle, goats, sheep

18
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How is Q fever transmitted?

Airborne, contact with infected animal secretions (milk, urine, feces, birth juices), anything with the spores on it

19
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What are the primary clinical signs of Q fever?

Abortion and stillbirth

20
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What is the zoonotic status and reportable status in Q fever?

Zoonotic and notifiable

21
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What is the control for Q fever?

Vaccination, quarantine, prompt testing, remove abortive materials

22
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What is the primary host for tritrichomonas?

Cattle

23
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How is T. Fetus transmitted?

Venereal

24
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What are the clinical signs associated with T. Fetus?

Infertility and early fetal death. Bulls are asymptomatic carriers

25
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What is the zoonotic status and reportable status of t. Fetus?

Not zoonotic, Notifiable

26
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What is control for t. Fetus?

No effective treatment for bulls- sexual rest. Vaccination reduces shedding. Testing for AI

27
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What is the main host for listeria?

Cattle and sheep

28
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What is the mode of transmission for listeria?

Food borne - ingestion

29
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What are the key clinical signs for listeria?

Neuro sings, abortion, meningitis, still birth

30
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What lesion is associated with listeria?

Perivascular cuffing

31
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What is the control for listeria?

Don’t feed spoiled silage, isolation of sick animals, quick disposal of dead animals, disposal of contaminated beddings, elimination of source

32
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how can humans get listeria?

consuming milk products or cold cuts 

33
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what can listeria cause in humans?

abortion in pregnant women and meningitis

34
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what microorganism causes pizzle rot?

corynebacteria spp.

35
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what are predisposing factors to C. pilosum and C. cystitidis?

high protein diet → ammonia

36
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what is the primary host for trich?

cattle

37
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what is the primary transmission for trich?

venereal

38
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what are the primary hosts for neospora?

dogs are definitive , cattle, sheep, goats are intermediate

39
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how is neosporosis transmitted?

vertical (transplacental), horizontal ( ingestion of oocyts like dog eating the placenta) 

40
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what are the major clinical signs neosporosis?

abortion storms, still birth, weak births with neuro dysfunction

41
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what is the control for neosporosis?

no vaccine. No approved treatment in cattle. Prevent contact bt dogs and cattle

42
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what are the primary hosts in toxo plasma?

definitive are felids, intermediate are sheep/ goats/ cervids/ pigs

43
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how is toxoplasma transmitted?

ingestion of oocyts, congential (transplacental)

44
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what are the main clinical signs of toxo plasma?

abortion, mummification, resorption, still born lambs or kids, necrosis or inflammation of placental cotyledons

45
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what is the control for toxo plasam?

vaccine for ewes, prevent cats from hunting, hygienic measures

46
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what is the primary host for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis? (aka herpes -1)

cattle

47
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what is the transmission for IBR?

respiratory outbreak leading to abortion, venereal

48
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what are the main clinical signs associated with IBR?

abortion storms, pustular vulvovaginitis, abortions following a resp dz, infectious balanoposthitis, conjunctivits 

49
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what kind of virus is BVDV?

pestivirus of flavivirus family that affects cattle.

50
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what are the main clinical signs of BVDV?

fever, depression, decreased milk production, abortion, diarrhea, death, muscosal dz

51
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in what age of infection do calves become persistently infected from BVD>

40 -125 days

52
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what do you do with PIs of BVD?

cull

53
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new calves introduced to the herd have been tested with BVD, what is unique to them?

they have an ear notch where they have been tested via IHC

54
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what animal is blue tongue more severe in?

sheep

55
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what type of virus is blue tongue?

sedoreoviridae

56
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what are the main clinical signs associated with blue tongue?

abortions or malformed lambs if infected during gestation (hydranencephaly and porencephaly )

57
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what is the transmission of blue tongue?

midges (culiocoides) 

58
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what is the main effect of blue tongue on rams?

reduced semen quality  

59
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what should you do with a ram that tests positive for blue tongue?

rest rams after febrile dz until semen normalizes 

60
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what is the primary transmission route for PRRS?

shed in all secretions from infected pigs, direct/ indirect, and horizontal/ vertical  

61
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what are key clinical signs for PRRS?

initially: anorexia, fever, lethargy,

blue ear dz, in nursery pigs : roughened hair coats, reduced growth rates, increased mortality, piglets born after infection will typically die with resp distress, neuro signs

62
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what is the control for PRRS?

biosecurity at individual farm level, biosecurity at pig population level

63
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what type of virus is PRRS?

arterivividae

64
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Betaarterivirus suid 1 is what virus?

The virus that causes Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS) in pigs.

65
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what is unique to parvo porcine virus?

if pigs were previously infected to virus before, the baby and mom will be immune during pregnancy, and maternal antibodies last for 6 mo (interferes with active immunization)

66
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what are the key clinical signs of PPV?

first sign: naive herd abnormally returning to estrus after breeding

SMEDI (still birth, mummification, embryonic death, and infertility), no abortion

67
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what is the control for PPV?

  • shed in semen in boars → maintain biosecurity 

  • vaccinate

  • qPCR screen of semen

68
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how is PPV transmitted?

extremely stable in environment, veneral

69
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B. Canis is a serious problem in?

breeding kennels (venereal)

70
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what is the primary host in border dz?

sheep and goats

71
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what is the clinical presentation for border dz?

abortions, congenial tremors, hairy shakers (PI)

72
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how is border disease transmitted?

venereal

73
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what is the control for border disease?

identify and remove PI animals, closed flock, screen rams before breeding season

74
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The following bacteria are associated with what disease?

  • Mannheimia haemolytica

  • Pasteurella multocida

  • Histophilus somni

  • Mycoplasma bovis

Bovine respiratory disease complex

75
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What are the clinical signs associated with BRD?

  • lethargy

  • Extended head and neck to aid in breathing

  • Eye, nose, mouth discharge

  • Coughing or labored breathing

  • Death without apparent CS

76
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What are the prevention and control measures for BRD?

  • stress management

  • Early detection and treatment

  • Biosecurity

  • Vaccination

  • Good management practices

77
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What bacteria is associated with Pleuropneumonia?

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

78
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What are the clinical signs for pleuropneumonia in swine?

  • sneezing

  • Coughing

  • Reduced growth rates

  • Mortalities

79
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What are predisposing factors for pleuropneumonia?

overcrowded and dusty housing

80
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What is the prevention and control for pleuropneumonia?

Improving ventilation, vaccines (reduces the severity)

81
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What diseases are associated with E. Coli (colibacillosis) in cattle?

Neonatal diarrhea (hypersecretory watery feces), mastitis

82
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What diseases are associated with E. Coli (colibacillosis) in pigs?

Neonatal diarrhea, postweaning diarrhea, edema disease

83
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What diseases are associated with E. Coli (colibacillosis) in Lambs?

Neonatal diarrhea

84
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How is E. Coli diagnosed?

Clinical signs, direct microscopy, culture, identification of colonies

To confirm : agglutination test

PCR: confirmation of clinical disease

85
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What is the prevention and control for E. Coli?

  • improve hygiene and management

  • Sanitation/ disinfection

  • Reduce overcrowding

  • Vaccine dam

  • Ensure colostrum

86
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S. Typhimurium will cause enteritis in what animals?

Cattle and swine

87
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What are clinical signs associated with salmonella in horses?

Diarrhea, endotoxemia, death in foals

88
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Overall what kind of diarrhea will salmonella cause?

Hypersecretion, malabsorption, and exudation

89
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What is the microbe responsible for paratuberculosis (John’s disease)?

M. Adium subp. Paratuberculosis

90
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How does Johne’s disease express itself in a cow?

  • calves ingest infective fecal matter

CS appear after 2 yrs of age

  • In the herd : clinically ill, asymptomatic shedders, infected but neither ill or shedding

91
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What is the transmission for Johne’s disease?

The pathogen enters a heard when an infected but healthy looking animal is introduce and infection is acquired by young animals

92
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How is Johne’s diagnosed?

Fecal smear and culture, followed by PCR

93
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What is the control for Johne’s disease?

  • remove clinical cases

  • Cull positive animals

  • No treatment :(

94
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What bacteria causes swine dysentery?

Brachyspira hyodsenteriae

95
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What are signs a pig is infected with Brachyspira hyodsenteriae?

  • diarrhea ± blood ± mucus

  • Reduced growth rates of post weaned pigs

  • Sudden death

96
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What is the prevention and control of swine dysentery?

  • reduced stocking density

  • Improving hygiene levels

  • Rodent control

  • Antibiotics

97
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Lawsonia intracellularis (proliferative enteropathy) affects what animal?

Pigs

98
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What are the effects from Lawsonia on the pig gut?

  • hyperplasia of enterocytes

  • Thickening of intestinal wall

  • Stiffening and reduced flexibility

99
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What forms of lawsonia intracellularis are in pigs?

  • acute hemorrhagic form : porcine hemorrhagic enteropathy

  • Porcine intestinal adenomatosis : porcine intestinal adenomatosis

100
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What are the signs of lawsonia intracellularis?

Mostly subclinical, mild diarrhea, reduced weight gain