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A Medication Order For A 10-Month Old Infant Weighing 8 Kg Calls For 800 ?g Furosemide Papertabs. The Available Preparation Of The Drug In The Pharmacy Is 40 Mg. The Average Weight Of The Tablet Is 80 Mg. How Many Papertabs Can The Pharmacist Prepare From One Tablet?
a.50 Pptabs
b.75 Pptabs
c.100 Pptabs
d.125 Pptabs
A
A Specific Drug Was Previously Categorized As A Drug That Has Shown An Adverse Effect On Fetus Of Pregnant Animals But Has No Well-Controlled Studies On Pregnant Women. A Recent Research, However, Showed An Evidence Of Risk On The Fetus Of Pregnant Women But Its Potential Benefits Outweigh Potential Risks In Certain Situations. What Is The New Pregnancy Category Of The Drug?
a.Category B
b.Category C
c.Category D
d.Category X
D
NYHA Functional Limitation Class That Indicates The Degree Of Effort Necessary To Elicit HF Symptoms That Occurs At Rest.
a.Class I
b.Class II
c.Class III
d.Class IV
D
What happens when the patient, who is a chronic smoker, is taking a drug?
I. Increase in t1/2 of the drug
II. Decrease in t1/2 of the drug
III. Induces the metabolism of the drug
a.I Only
b.II And III
c.III Only
d.I And III
B
Which Of The Following FDA-Approved Tall Man Lettering Is Appropriate?
a.dopAMINE and dobutAMINE
b.DOpamine and DObutamine
c.doPamine and doBUTamine
d.DOPamine and DOBUTamine
D
Which Of The Following Laboratory Test Results Correctly Signifies Renal Disease?
a.↑ Creatinine Clearance, ↓ Serum Creatinine, ↑ BUN
b.↓ Creatinine Clearance, ↑ Serum Creatinine, ↑ BUN
c.↑ Creatinine Clearance, ↑ Serum Creatinine, ↓ BUN
d.↓ Creatinine Clearance, ↓ Serum Creatinine, ↓ BUN
B
Which Of The Following Tests Is Used Best For The Diagnosis Of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?
a.Van Den Bergh Test
b.Coombs Test
c.Schilling Test
d.Serum AST, ALT
B
The Best Term Used For Substances That Absorb Moisture From The Atmosphere But Does Not Dissolve In It.
a.Hygroscopic
b.Deliquescent
c.Efflorescent
d.A Or C
A
The Following Influence Calcium Homeostasis In The Body By Decreasing Its Level In The Blood, Except:
a.Glucocorticoids
b.Parathyroid Hormone
c.Calcitonin
d.Estrogen
B
What Pharmacokinetic Process Is Affected When Two Drugs That Are Administered Resulted To Neutralization Reaction?
a.Absorption
b.Distribution
c.Metabolism
d.Excretion
A
The Following Induces The Metabolism Of Warfarin, Except:
a.Cruciferous Vegetables
b.Azithromycin
c.Carbamazepine
d.Cimetidine
D
Sodium nitroprusside's recommended route/s of administration during hypertensive emergencies
a.Intramuscular
b.IV Bolus
c.IV Infusion
d.B Or C
C
Drug combinations that exhibit potentiation include:
I. Co-amoxiclav®
II. Co-trimoxazole®
III. Unasyn®
IV. Sinemet®
V. Piptaz®
VI. Fansidar®
a.I, II, III, V, VI
b.I, III, IV, V, VI
c.I, III, IV, V
d.I, II, III, IV, VI
C
A Reversible Cholestatic Jaundice Is An Adverse Effect Of Erythromycin In Which Specific Form Of The Drug?
a.Palmitate
b.Ethylsuccinate
c.Lactobionate
d.Estolate
D
Patients Undergoing Cancer Chemotherapy May Feel Nauseated. As The Pharmacist, You Are Asked By The Physician To Recommend An Effective Drug For This. What Would This Be?
a.Meclizine
b.Metoclopramide
c.Sumatriptan
d.Ondansetron
D
Water-soluble vitamins
I. D-α-tocopherol
II. Pyridoxine
III. Cevitamic acid
IV. Ascorbic acid
V. Ergocarciferol
VI.Cyanocobalamin
a.II, IV, V, VI
b.II, III, IV, V, VI
c.I, II, IV, V, VI
d.II, III, IV, VI
D
Therapeutic index (TI) measures the relative safety of a drug. Determine the correct statements regarding therapeutic index.
I. The higher the TI, the more safe the drug is
II. Drugs with high TI include Digoxin, Warfarin, and Theophylline
III. Drugs with low TI include Aspirin, β-blockers, and Penicillin
IV. Generally, drugs with low TI are preferred to be used as first-line agents since they require lower doses to elicit a therapeutic response
a.I Only
b.II, III, IV
c.I, IV
d.II, III
A
Senolytic Drugs Are Simply Known As
a.Anti-Aging Drugs
b.Anti-Cancer Drugs
c.Anti-Flatulent Agents
d.Anti-Parkinsonism Drugs
A
Which Of The Following Electrolyte Imbalance Predisposes A Patient Taking Digoxin To Toxicity?
a.Hypokalemia
b.Hypocalcemia
c.Hypermagnesemia
d.Hyponatremia
A
Vaccines with the ideal and recommended storage temperature of -25°C to -10°C include
I. Oral Polio
II. Measles (freeze-dried)
III. BCG
IV. Hepatitis B
a.I, II, III
b.I, II
c.I, II, III, IV
d.II, III, IV
B
Helidac® is a combination therapy indicated for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection and duodenal ulcer disease. Its components include the following, except
a.Bismuth Subsalicylate
b.Lansoprazole
c.Tetracycline
d.Metronidazole
B
A Metabolite Of Cyclophosphamide And Ifosfamide That Causes Hemorrhagic Cystitis
a.Amifostine
b.Mesna
c.Dexrazoxane
d.Acrolein
D
Biomarkers for MI
I. AST
II. ALT
III. Troponin I
IV. LDH 2
V. CK-MB
VI. BUN
a.Three Of The Above
b.Four Of The Above
c.Five Of The Above
d.All Of The Above
B
The following statements are true regarding Splenda® and Equal®, except:
a.Both Contain Aspartame As Artificial Sweetener
b.Both Are Zero-Calorie Sweeteners
c.Both May Still Lead To Diabetes And Obesity
d.None of the above - all statements are correct
A
The Only Class Of Immunoglobulin Capable Of Crossing The Placenta
a.IgA
b.IgD
c.IgE
d.IgG
e.IgM
D
The Vitamin That Is Used For Hyperlipidemia
a.Biotin
b.Niacin
c.Folic Acid
d.Pantothenic Acid
B
Patient MNPR, A Diabetic Taking Chlorpropamide, Suffered From Typhoid Fever And Was Given Chloramphenicol. After A Few Days, He Developed Severe Hypoglycemia. The Reason May Be?
a.Chloramphenicol Inhibits ATP-Sensitive Potassium Channels Thereby Causing The Secretion Of Insulin
b.Chloramphenicol Inhibits The Enzyme Responsible For The Metabolism Of Chlorpropamide
c.Chloramphenicol Acts As A Suicide Substrate For Chlorpropamide
d.Chloramphenicol Eradicates The Bacteria In The GI Tract Therefore Causing The Complete Absorption Of The Hypoglycemic Drug
B
Non-Selective NSAID Propionic Acid Derivative
a.
Tolectin ®
b.
Vi-gel ®
c.
Faspic ®
d.
Tylenol ®
C
Patient BDEC, a forklift operator with a past history of cardiac arrhythmia is suffering from seasonal rhinitis. Which of the following is the best recommendation for this patient?
a.Cetirizine
b.Fexofenadine
c.Meclizine
d.Diphenhydramine
B
True about anticoagulants and how to monitor them
I. aPTT stands for "activated partial thromboplastin time" while PT refers to "Prothrombin time"
II. Warfarin makes use of aPTT while Heparin utilizes PT
III. A higher-than-normal PT-INR indicates risk of thrombosis
IV. A lower-than-normal PT-INR indicates risk of bleeding
a.I Only
b.I, III, IV
c.I, II
d.I, II, III, IV
A
Kernicterus Is A Bilirubin-Induced Brain Dysfunction In Babies. It Is Caused By An Uncontrollable Increase Of Bilirubin Levels In The Blood Which Then Can Cross The BBB. Which Of The Following Anti-Infectives Is Found Out To Be Associated With Kernicterus?
a.Sulfonamides
b.Chloramphenicol
c.Penicillin
d.Macrolides
A
Odd Man Out
a.Redox
b.Neutralization Or Acid-Base Reactions
c.Optical Isomerism
d.Salting-Out
D
In Basic Urine, Acidic Drugs Are
a.Non-Ionized, Hence Reabsorbed, Decrease T1/2
b.Ionized, Hence Not Reabsorbed, Decrease T1/2
c.Non-Ionized, Hence Reabsorbed, Increase T1/2
d.Ionized, Hence Not Reabsorbed, Increase T1/2
B
The Level Of Prevention Taken To Avoid Emergence Of Disease. It Establishes Social, Economic, And Cultural Patterns Of Living That Are Known To Contribute To Evaluated Risk.
a.Primary Prevention
b.Primordial Prevention
c.Principal Prevention
d.Secondary Prevention
B
The following is/are not an advantage/s of Unit Dose Drug Distribution System (UDDDS)
I. Allow nurses to have more time for direct patient care
II. Transfers the responsibility of intravenous preparations and drug reconstitution to the pharmacy
III. Readily available drugs for the patient
IV. Less responsibility to the pharmacist
a.I, II
b.II, III, IV
c.III, IV
d.IV Only
C
The Emergency Room And Wards Should Be Provided With Essential Drugs/Medicines For An Immediate Response On Life-Threatening Situations. Immediate Replenishment Of Used Drugs/Medicines And Medical Supplies Is Needed To Ensure Their Availability At All Times. The Following Comprises The Emergency Kit Except
a.Heparin Sodium 1000 IU/Ml, 5 Ml Vial
b.Silver Sulfadiazine Cream 1% 500 G Jar, Micronized
c.Potassium Chloride 2 Meq/Ml, 20 Ml Vial (IV Infusion)
d.Isosorbide Dinitrate 5mg, Tab (PO)
D
True of Type A ADR
I. Common, reproducible, dose-dependent, unpredictable
II. Can be rationalized from the drug's pharmacology
III. May be an extension effect or a side effect
IV. An example of this is hypoglycemia caused by Metformin
a.I, II, III
b.II, III
c.II, III, IV
d.I, II, III,IV
B
True of Type B ADR
I. Rare, non-reproducible, non-dose-dependent, predictable
II. Unrelated to the drug's pharmacology
III. Reaction may be idiosyncratic or immunologic
IV. An example of this is Halothane-induced severe acute hepatitis with massive necrosis
a.I, II, III
b.II, III
c.II, III, IV
d.I, II, III, IV
C
Group Of Medical Staff Who Are Full-Time Employees. They Provide Patient Care And Service In Exchange Of Training Experience.
a.Associate Medical Staff
b.Attending Medical Staff
c.Courtesy Medical Staff
d.Resident Medical Staff
D
Evaluate the statements
I. HPI is the total sum of patient's health status prior to the present problem
II. PMH is information about the current condition of the patient
III. ROS is the process of evaluating anatomic findings through the use of observation, palpation, percussion, and auscultation
IV. PE is designed to uncover dysfunction and disease with a list of questions arranged by the organ system
a.All Statements Are Correct
b.Three Statements Are Correct
c.Two Statements Are Correct
d.No Statement Is Correct
D
Evidence-based medicine (EBM) is the conscientious, judicious, and explicit use of best current evidence in making decisions about the case of individual patients. Below are sources of data essential to provide EBM. Based on the hierarchy of scientific evidence, arrange them from the weakest to the strongest.
I. Observational studies
II. Randomized clinical trials
III. Non-randomized clinical trials
IV. Systematic review
V. Expert opinion
a.III < I < V < IV < II
b.I < V < II < III < IV
c.V < I < III < II < IV
d.I < III < V < II < IV
C
Which Source Provides Convenience And Easy Access To Drug Information But Information Found On Such Sources May Be Outdated?
a.Primary Source
b.Secondary Source
c.Intermediate Source
d.Tertiary Source
D
Pharmacists Must Be Able To Communicate With Patients Who Are Unable Or Unwilling To Communicate In Keeping With Generally Accepted Dominant Societal Norms. Communicating With Patients With Special Needs May Be A Challenge But As A Pharmacist, One Must Know The Proper Approach When The Situation Arises. Which Is Not Appropriate When Handling Patients With Impaired Hearing?
a.Do Not Assume That All People With Hearing Impairment Can Read Lips And Understand Sign Language
b.Do Not Assume That Hearing-Impaired Patients Have Diminished Intellectual Abilities
c.Communicate As Clearly As Possible With Hearing-Impaired Patients And Verbalize Slowly And Distinctly
d.None of the above - All of the statements are correct
D
Communicating With Mentally-Impaired Patients May Also Pose A Challenge For Pharmacists. When Dealing With The Situation, The Following Must Be Observed Except
a.Communicate Clearly And Directly With The Mentally-Impaired Patient And Do Not Assume That The Patients Are Incapable Of Participating In Their Health Care
b.Communicate Clearly And Directly To Their Caregivers
c.Be Flexible Enough To Assess The Level To Which Each Patient Can Participate And Communicate Appropriately For Each Situation
d.None of the above - All of the statements are correct
D
Dealing With Pediatric Patients Can Be A Challenge For Pharmacists Because Of Short Attention Span And Inability To Understand Difficult Words. As A Pharmacist, What Must Be Avoided When Interacting With These Patients?
a.Information Must Be Age-Appropriate; Simple Terms Must Be Used For Children And More In-Depth Information Exchange For Pre-Teens And Teens
b.Communicate Directly With The Pediatric Patient As Well As With Their Parent Or Guardian
c.Do Not Assume That Children Have Nothing To Contribute To Their Health Care Since They May Understand Why They Are Taking The Medication
d.
None of the above - All of the statements are correct
D
Palliative Care In Cancer Patients Include/S
a.Use Of Chemotherapeutic Drug To Eliminate Drug Cells
b.Subjecting The Patient To Radiation Therapy
c.Relieve symptoms and pain to improve patient's quality of life
d.Both A and B
C
Current Prescription Information Includes All Of The Following Except
a.The Name And Description Of The Drug
b.The Date Or Time The Medication Was Stopped
c.The Dosage Of The Drug
d.The Prescribed And Actual Dosing Schedule
B
Several pieces of equipment are required for the physical examination of patients. In general, pharmacists must invest in decent equipment and avoid the lowest-priced equipment which may be poorly engineered and harder to use. Which of the following equipments are correctly matched with their corresponding use?
I. Flashlight - aid in examination of the oropharynx and the skin
II. Tongue depressor - perform funduscopic examination
III. Otoscope - assess the tympanic membrane
IV. Sphygnomanometer - measure blood pressure
a.I, II, IV
b.I, III, IV
c.II, III, IV
d.I, II, III, IV
B
Information Obtained From The Physical Examination Along With Data Acquired From Medication History And Laboratory Tests Are Essential To Assess Patient Response To Drug And Nondrug Therapy. All Pharmacists Must Know The Most Common Physical Assessment Acronyms And Understand The Meanings Of The Findings Documented By Other Health Care Professionals. Which One Of The Following Abbreviation-Definition Pairs Is Incorrect?
a.
NCAT - Normocephalic and atraumatic
b.
RRR - Regular rate and rhythm
c.
CTA - Clear to auscultation
d.
MSE - Minor system examination
D
A Variety Of Tests And Procedures Are Used To Diagnose And Monitor Conditions That Affect Various Organ Systems. As A Health Care Professional, A Pharmacist Must Have A Basic Knowledge Of These Procedures. Which Does Not Match Its Definition?
a.Computed Tomography (CT Scan) Uses A Computerized X-Ray System To Produce Detailed Sectional X-Ray Images
b.Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) Uses An Externally Applied Magnetic Field To Align The Axis Of Nuclear Spin Of Cellular Nuclei Which Allows Finely Detailed Planar And Three-Dimensional Images To Be Produced
c.Standard Radiography Produces Images On Photographic Plates By Passing X-Rays (Roentgen Rays) Through The Body
d.None of the above - All statements are correct
C
Which Of The Following Diagnostic Or Laboratory Tests Is Invasive?
a.Analysis Of Spontaneously Voided Urine
b.Collection Of CSF
c.Stool Occult Blood Analysis
d.Chest Radiograph
B
Vital Signs Include The Following Except
a.Heart Rate
b.Respiratory Rate
c.Cardiac Output
d.Temperature
C
Which One Of The Following Is Not An Objective Parameter?
a.Vertigo
b.Urine Output
c.Bilirubin Output
d.Hemoglobin Level
A
Which Of The Following Are Indications Of Intravenous Therapy?
a.Replacement Of Fluids And Electrolytes
b.Administration Of Drugs Requiring A Rapid High Level In The Blood
c.Emergency Situations Like Cardiac Arrest
d.All Of The Above
D
A Solution In Which The Concentration Of Solute Is Greater Inside The Cell Than Outside The Cell Which Is The Solution Itself
a.Hypotonic Solution
b.Isotonic Solution
c.Hypertonic Solution
d.Atonic Solution
A
When Eating Or When Acidic Drugs Such As Ascorbic Acid Are Taken, There Will Be An Increased Absorption Of Weak Acid Drugs Such As Aspirin Or Dipyridamole. Which Mechanism Proves This?
a.Increased GI Motility
b.Decreased GI Motility
c.Complexation And Chelation
d.Change In Gastric Ph
D
Drug-Herb Interactions In Patients Taking Warfarin Are The Following Except
a.Ginger, Garlic
b.Wheatgrass
c.Spinach
d.None of the above - All have interactions with Warfarin
D
True About Drug-Food Interactions Except
a.Oral Systemic Absorption Of Lipid-Soluble Drugs Is Increased In The Presence Of Fatty Food Whereas Water-Soluble Drugs Are Decreased And May Be Delayed Due To Delay In GET
b.Controlled-Relase, Delayed-Release, Or Extended-Release Dosage Forms Are Almost Negligibly Affected By Food
c.Quinolone Antibiotics Will Complex With Calcium From The Diet And The Result Will Be Decreased Quinolone Bioavailability
d.None of the above - All are true regarding drug-food interactions
B
Factors That May Precipitate Potential Drug Interactions Include The Following Except
a.The More Drug Used By The Patient, The Greater The Potential For A Drug Interaction
b.Different Prescribers May Prescribe Interacting Drugs
c.Patient Compliance To Instruction Provided For Him
d.None of the above - All are factors that may precipitate drug interactions
D
A patient on Indinavir antiretroviral therapy (ART) begins taking St. John's wort for depression and suffers unexpected reduction in CD4 count. This is most likely due to
a.Pharmacodynamic Interaction Producing Antagonistic Therapeutic Effect.
b.enzyme induction by St. John's wort causing increased metabolism of ART.
c.enzyme inhibition by St. John's wort causing toxic levels of ART.
d.Pharmacodynamic Interaction Producing Additive Toxicity.
B
Correct Use Of Types Of Containers For Sterile Parenteral Preparations Except
a.Infusion Solutions Are Used For The Intermittent Or Continuous Infusion Of Fluids Or Drugs.
b.Prefilled Syringes Contain Drugs Administered In An Emergency Because It Can Be Injected Immediately
c.Vials Are Glass Or Plastic Containers Closed With A Rubber Stopper And Sealed With An Aluminum Crimp And May Enable Multiple Dosing
d.Ampoules Are Entirely Made Up Of Glass And May Be Reused
D
Most Biologic Drugs Are Sensitive To All Of The Following Except
a.Heat
b.Agitation
c.Stainless Steel
d.Light
C
The Mechanism Of Action Of Amiloride Is Most Similar To That Of
a.Spironolactone
b.Hydrochlorothiazide
c.Metolazone
d.Triamterene
D
Tuberculin syringes are
I. Only suitable for administration of TB vaccine
II. Prefilled syringes
III. 1 mL units with 0.05 mL accuracy
a.I Only
b.III Only
c.I, II
d.I, II, III
B
The SPF Is A Numeric Value That Indicates The Multiple Length Of Time An Individual May Be Exposed To The Sun With Minimum Erythema As Compared To The Exposure Time Without Any Protection. What Does SPF Stand For?
a.Sun Protective Factor
b.Sun Protection Factor
c.Sun Preventing Factor
d.Sun Protecting Factor
B
The "French" scale is commonly used for denoting the external diameters of
I. Urinary catheters
II. Enteral feeding tube
III. Syringe needles
a.I Only
b.III Only
c.I, II
d.I, II, III
C
The Presence Of Sodium Bisulfate In A Drug Solution Implies That The Drug
a.Has Poor Water Solubility
b.Is Heat Labile
c.Is Susceptible To Oxidation
d.Requires An Alkaline Media
C
Insulin Preparations Are Usually Administered By
a.Intramuscular Injection
b.Intravenous Bolus
c.Intravenous Infusion
d.Subcutaneous Injection
D
On Exposure To Air, Aminophyline Solutions May Develop
a.Crystals Of Theophylline
b.Precipitate Of Aminophylline
c.Precipitate Of Ethylenediamine
d.Straw Color
A
The expiration date on pharmaceutical container states "Expires January 2020." This statement means that by the expiration date, the product may have lost
a.Up To 5% Of Its Activity
b.Up To 15% Of Its Activity
c.Up To 20% Of Its Activity
d.Sufficient Activity To Be Outside USP Monograph Requirements
D
Potassium Supplements Are Administered In All Of The Following Manners Except
a.IV Infusion
b.IV Bolus
c.Elixirs, PO
d.Slow-Release Tablets, PO
B
Anti-TB Drug With Retrobulbar Neuritis As Common Serious Adverse Event
a.Pyrazinamide
b.Ethambutol
c.Capreomycin
d.Streptomycin
B
Glycopeptide Antibiotic
a.Bacitracin
b.Fosfomycin
c.Cycloserine
d.Vancomycin
D
Which Of The Following Parenteral Routes Of Administration Is Not Considered Suitable For Heparin Sodium Injection USP?
a.IV Infusion
b.Subcutaneous
c.IV Bolus
d.Intramuscular
D
Hemolytic Anemia Due To Erythrocyte Deficiency Of Glucose-6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Would Most Likely Be Precipitated By
a.Phenytoin
b.Primaquine
c.Isoniazid
d.Pyridoxine
B
Doses Of 6-Mercaptopurine Should Be Reduced In Patients Taking Allopurinol Because Allopurinol
a.Inhibits The Renal Excretion Of 6-Mercaptopurine
b.Releases 6-Mercaptopurine From Protein-Binding Sites
c.Inhibits Tubular Secretion Of 6-Mercaptopurine
d.Inhibits The Metabolism Of 6-Mercaptopurine
D
Stenosis Refers To
a.Hardening Of Tissues With A Loss Of Elasticity
b.Narrowing Or Stricture Of A Duct Or Canal
c.Inflammation Of Vertebrae
d.Stoppage Of Blood Flow To An Area Of The Body
B
Which Of The Following Agents Would Be Most Dangerous To Use In A Patient Already Receiving High Doses Of Gentamicin?
a.Tetracycline
b.Torsemide
c.Fosinopril
d.Temazepam
B
The Selective Cyclooxygenase (COX) 2 Inhibitors Have Been Associated With Which Of The Following Adverse Drug Reactions?
a.Severe Ischemic Colitis
b.orsades De Pointes
c.Cardiovascular Thrombotic Events
d.Churg-Strauss Syndrome
C
A 12-year-old boy is treated for otitis media with Cefaclor. On the seventh day of therapy, he spikes a fever and develops an urticarial rash on his trunk. Which of the following laboratory tests could best confirm the physician's suspicion of a hypersensitivity (allergic) reaction?
a.Serum Hemoglobin And Reticulocyte Count
b.Lactate Dehydrogenase Isoenzyme Profile
c.RBC Count And Serum Bilirubin
d.CBC And Differential
D
Which Of The Following Factors Is Associated With An Increased Risk Of Noncompliance In The Elderly?
a.Polypharmacy
b.Has Hypertension
c.Good Relationship With Physician
d.Living With A Spouse In An Isolated Environment
A
Which Of The Following Anti-Gout Medications Acts By Decreasing Serum Levels But Increasing Urine Levels Of Uric Acid, Thus Increasing The Risk Of Kidney Stone Development?
a.Colchicine
b.Allopurinol
c.Probenecid
d.Rasburicase
C
The Form Of Calcium Phosphate That Is Most Soluble In PN Solutions Is?
a.Dibasic
b.Divalent
c.Monobasic
d.Trivalent
C