Exam 1 Practice Test Anatomy

Which of the following best describes connective tissue?

A. Always lines surfaces

B. Cells tightly packed with little matrix

C. Cells embedded in an extracellular matrix

D. Always avascular

C. Cells embedded in an extracellular matrix

2. Which suffix refers to a mature, matrix-maintaining cell?

A. -blast

B. -cyte

C. -clast

D. -gen

B. -cyte

3. A cell that breaks down bone matrix would be called a:

A. Osteoblast

B. Osteocyte

C. Osteoclast

D. Chondrocyte

C. Osteoclast

4. Which cell is primarily responsible for producing collagen fibers and ground substance?

A. Mast cell

B. Macrophage

C. Fibroblast

D. Plasma cell

C. Fibroblast

5. Which connective tissue cell is most involved in phagocytosis?

A. Mast cell

B. Macrophage

C. Fibroblast

D. Adipocyte

B. Macrophage

6. Which of the following is NOT a component of the extracellular matrix?

A. Fibers

B. Ground substance

C. Cells

D. Proteoglycans

C. Cells

7. Which fiber type provides tensile strength?

A. Elastic

B. Reticular

C. Collagen

D. Fibrillin

C. Collagen

8. Reticular fibers are primarily composed of:

A. Type I collagen

B. Type II collagen

C. Type III collagen

D. Elastin

C. Type III collagen

9. Which fiber allows tissues to stretch and recoil?

A. Collagen

B. Reticular

C. Elastic

D. Keratin

C. Elastic

10. Which ground substance component resists compressive forces in cartilage?

A. Fibronectin

B. Aggrecan

C. Elastin

D. Actin

B. Aggrecan

11. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) primarily:

A. Provide tensile strength

B. Retain water and form gel-like matrix

C. Bind cells to collagen

D. Form elastic fibers

B. Retain water and form gel-like matrix

12. Multiadhesive glycoproteins such as fibronectin mainly:

A. Store energy

B. Bind water

C. Mediate cell adhesion and signaling

D. Form collagen fibers

C. Mediate cell adhesion and signaling

13. Which is an example of dense regular connective tissue?

A. Dermis

B. Tendon

C. Spleen

D. Adipose tissue

B. Tendon

14. Which tissue provides multidirectional strength?

A. Dense regular CT

B. Dense irregular CT

C. Reticular tissue

D. Areolar tissue

B. Dense irregular CT

15. Which of the following is a connective tissue with special properties?

A. Stratified squamous epithelium

B. Reticular tissue

C. Skeletal muscle

D. Nervous tissue

B. Reticular tissue

16. During wound healing, fibroblasts may change into myofibroblasts. This change mainly allows them to:

A. Store fat

B. Contract the wound

C. Secrete antibodies

D. Phagocytose bacteria

B. Contract the wound

17. Adipose tissue is classified as:

A. Epithelial tissue

B. Muscle tissue

C. Connective tissue

D. Nervous tissue

C. Connective tissue

18. White adipose tissue is:

A. Multilocular

B. Used for heat production

C. Unilocular

D. Found only in infants

C. Unilocular

19. Brown adipose tissue differs from white because it:

A. Stores more triglycerides

B. Has fewer mitochondria

C. Produces heat using UCP1

D. Has a single large lipid droplet

C. Produces heat using UCP1

20. Which is a function of adipose tissue?

A. Producing antibodies

B. Energy storage

C. Producing collagen

D. Filtration of blood

21. Fat stored in adipocytes comes from:

A. Only dietary fat

B. Only glucose

C. Chylomicrons and VLDLs and glucose

D. Only proteins

C. Chylomicrons and VLDLs and glucose

22. Mobilization of triglycerides involves:

A. Increased fat storage

B. Breakdown of triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol

C. Conversion into glycogen

D. Inhibition of lipase

B. Breakdown of triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol

23. Which is TRUE of white adipose tissue?

A. Central nucleus

B. Many mitochondria

C. Nucleus pushed to the side

D. Main function is thermogenesis

C. Nucleus pushed to the side

24. Which is TRUE of brown adipose tissue?

A. Unilocular

B. Few mitochondria

C. Central nucleus

D. Stores fat long-term

C. Central nucleus

25. Which is TRUE about cartilage?

A. Highly vascular

B. Contains nerves

C. Receives nutrients by diffusion

D. Repairs quickly

C. Receives nutrients by diffusion

26. Chondroblasts are cells that:

A. Maintain matrix

B. Break down matrix

C. Actively secrete matrix

D. Are inactive cells

C. Actively secrete matrix

27. Chondrocytes are:

A. Found only in perichondrium

B. Actively dividing cells on surface

C. Mature cells in lacunae

D. Bone-forming cells

C. Mature cells in lacunae

28. Which cartilage type is most common and is found in trachea and articular surfaces?

A. Elastic

B. Fibrocartilage

C. Hyaline

D. Calcified cartilage

C. Hyaline

29. Which cartilage type is best at resisting compression and acting as a shock absorber?

A. Hyaline

B. Elastic

C. Fibrocartilage

D. Articular

C. Fibrocartilage

30. Which cartilage type contains elastic fibers and does NOT calcify?

A. Hyaline

B. Elastic

C. Fibrocartilage

D. Articular

B. Elastic

31. Which cartilage lacks a perichondrium?

A. Elastic cartilage

B. Hyaline cartilage (trachea)

C. Fibrocartilage

D. Epiglottis cartilage

C. Fibrocartilage and articular cartilage

32. The perichondrium:

A. Is part of the cartilage matrix

B. Contains blood vessels and progenitor cells

C. Is found around all cartilage

D. Allows rapid cartilage repair

B. Contains blood vessels and progenitor cells

33. Interstitial growth of cartilage occurs by:

A. Addition of cells from perichondrium

B. Division of chondrocytes within matrix

C. Ossification

D. Fibroblast differentiation

B. Division of chondrocytes within matrix

34. Appositional growth of cartilage occurs by:

A. Division of chondrocytes in lacunae

B. Calcification

C. New layers added by chondroblasts at surface

D. Replacement by bone

C. New layers added by chondroblasts at surface

35. The epiphyseal growth plate is made of:

A. Elastic cartilage

B. Fibrocartilage

C. Hyaline cartilage

D. Bone

C. Hyaline cartilage

Which best describes the structure of the plasma membrane?
A. A single layer of phospholipids with embedded carbohydrates
B. A phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic tails and hydrophobic heads
C. A phospholipid bilayer with a hydrophobic interior and embedded proteins
D. A trilaminar protein sheet surrounding the cytoplasm

C. A phospholipid bilayer with a hydrophobic interior and embedded proteins

Which molecule contributes most to membrane fluidity and stability?
A. Glycoproteins
B. Cholesterol
C. Phosphatidylserine
D. Actin

B. Cholesterol

Which type of transport requires energy and maintains plasma membrane integrity?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Vesicular transport
D. Osmosis

C. Vesicular transport

Which process moves substances into the cell using vesicles?
A. Exocytosis
B. Endocytosis
C. Transcytosis
D. Diffusion

B. Endocytosis

Which organelle is most involved in ATP production?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Lysosome
C. Mitochondrion
D. Rough ER

C. Mitochondrion

Proteins destined for secretion are primarily synthesized in the:
A. Smooth ER
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Rough ER
D. Cytosol

C. Rough ER

Which organelle detoxifies drugs and alcohol in hepatocytes?
A. Rough ER
B. Smooth ER
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosome

B. Smooth ER

Endoplasmic-reticulum–associated degradation (ERAD) primarily functions to:
A. Enhance protein secretion
B. Repair damaged DNA
C. Degrade misfolded proteins
D. Transport lipids to the Golgi

C. Degrade misfolded proteins

Failure of ERAD is associated with which condition?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Asthma

B. Parkinson’s disease

Which cytoskeletal element forms the core of microvilli?
A. Microtubules
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Actin microfilaments
D. Keratin

C. Actin microfilaments

Which cytoskeletal structure is responsible for vesicle transport within the cell?
A. Actin filaments
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Microtubules
D. Desmosomes

C. Microtubules

Lamins are intermediate filaments found in the:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Basal lamina
C. Nuclear envelope
D. Golgi apparatus

C. Nuclear envelope

Which structure regulates transport between the nucleus and cytoplasm?
A. Nucleolus
B. Chromatin
C. Nuclear pore complex
D. Perinuclear space

C. Nuclear pore complex

Stem cells are best defined as cells that:
A. Are fully differentiated
B. Divide only symmetrically
C. Can self-renew and differentiate
D. Lack a nucleus

C. Can self-renew and differentiate

Apoptosis is important because it:
A. Causes inflammation
B. Is random cell death
C. Removes damaged or unnecessary cells
D. Occurs only in disease

C. Removes damaged or unnecessary cells

Which is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?
A. Protection
B. Absorption
C. Conduction of electrical impulses
D. Secretion

C. Conduction of electrical impulses

The two major types of epithelia are:
A. Simple and stratified
B. Squamous and cuboidal
C. Covering and glandular
D. Endocrine and exocrine

C. Covering and glandular

Which junction prevents paracellular diffusion between epithelial cells?
A. Desmosome
B. Gap junction
C. Tight junction
D. Hemidesmosome

C. Tight junction

Tight junctions are composed primarily of which proteins?
A. Cadherins
B. Integrins
C. Occludins and claudins
D. Connexins

C.. Occludins and claudins

Hemidesmosomes attach epithelial cells to the:
A. Adjacent epithelial cells
B. Actin cytoskeleton
C. Basal lamina
D. Terminal web

C. Basal lamina

16. The basal lamina is produced by:
    A. Fibroblasts
    B. Epithelial cells
    C. Endothelial cells
    D. Adipocytes
    
    

16. B. Epithelial cells

Type IV collagen is a major component of the:
A. Reticular lamina
B. Lamina propria
C. Basal lamina
D. Cytoskeleton

C. Basal lamina

Which free surface specialization increases surface area for absorption?
A. Cilia
B. Stereocilia
C. Microvilli
D. Flagella

C. Microvilli

The terminal web is composed primarily of:
A. Microtubules
B. Actin filaments
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Collagen fibers

B. Actin filaments

Which feature is characteristic of an absorptive epithelial cell?
A. Numerous cilia
B. Thick keratin layer
C. Dense microvilli and terminal web
D. Multiple nuclei

C. Dense microvilli and terminal web

Aquaporins function to:
A. Transport ions actively
B. Transport glucose
C. Allow water movement across membranes
D. Anchor cells to the basal lamina

C. Allow water movement across membranes

Which epithelium is best suited for diffusion of gases?
A. Stratified squamous
B. Simple cuboidal
C. Simple squamous
D. Pseudostratified columnar

C. Simple squamous

Which epithelium lines the urinary bladder?
A. Simple columnar
B. Stratified squamous
C. Transitional epithelium
D. Pseudostratified epithelium

C. Transitional epithelium

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is characterized by:
A. Multiple layers of cells
B. All cells reaching the free surface
C. All cells attached to the basement membrane
D. Absence of cilia

C. All cells attached to the basement membrane

Exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands because exocrine glands:
A. Are ductless
B. Secrete hormones into blood
C. Secrete through ducts
D. Lack epithelial origin

C. Secrete through ducts

Which mode of secretion involves complete destruction of the cell?
A. Merocrine
B. Apocrine
C. Holocrine
D. Endocrine

C. Holocrine

Goblet cells are classified as:
A. Endocrine glands
B. Multicellular exocrine glands
C. Unicellular exocrine glands
D. Apocrine glands

C. Unicellular exocrine glands

Which type of exocrine gland produces a watery, enzyme-rich secretion?
A. Mucous
B. Serous
C. Mixed
D. Holocrine

B. Serous