Clinical Rotation I: Self Study

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100 Terms

1
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Historically, the development of ultrasound began shortly after:

sonar in World War II

2
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The early applications of obstetric ultrasound were initiated by:

Ian Donald

3
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Visualization of the cardiac structures in the heart was discovered by:

Hertz and Edler

4
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Which statement about the role of sonographers is false?

Sonographers perform ultrasound studies and gather diagnostic data independent of the physician

5
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The organization that reviews and recommends Diagnostic Medical Sonography programs for accreditation is the:

Joint Review Committee for Diagnostic Medical Sonography

6
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A structure that has well defined walls without internal echoes on ultrasound is said to be:

Anechoic

7
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Gallstones within a fluid-filled gallbladder appear:

echogenic

8
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When sound travels through a fluid-filled substance and is not attenuated, it shows:

Enhancement

9
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An example of a hypoechoic structure is:

Lymph node

10
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All of the following structures are homogenous except:

Gastrointestinal tract

11
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If a structure is very close to the normal parenchyma echogenicity pattern, it is:

isoechoic

12
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Thin septa within a loculated mass are more likely to represent what type of disease?

Benign

13
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Characteristics of a solid mass may include all of the following except?

Anechoic properties

14
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Diagnostic ultrasound uses frequencies of:

1-10 MHz

15
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The time required to produces each cycle depends on the frequency of the transducer, this is called the:

period

16
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The means of converting one form of energy to another is called the:

Piezoelectric effect

17
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The ___ is the product of the velocity of sound in a medium and the density of that medium.

Acoustic impedance

18
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The angle of reflection is equal to the:

Angle of incidence

19
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The best transducer to image the thyroid gland is:

Linear array, 5 MHz

20
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The display mode that shows time along the horizontal axis and depth along the vertical axis is:

M mode

21
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Which statement about the Doppler principle is false?

The beam should be perpendicular to the flow

22
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Artifacts caused by sonographer technique include all of the following except:

Side lobes

23
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The best example of a mirror image artifact is seen with the:

Diaphragm and liver

24
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Reverberation may be seen when the transducer scans over a:

vessel

25
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A “dirty” shadow usually caused by:

air in the duodenum

26
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An example of subjective data in a health history is:

The patient states he has back pain

27
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Which statement is inappropriate for the patient interview process?

Always use the patient’s first name to establish a friendly relationship

28
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Which statement may be false in the guidelines for gastrointestinal assessment?

Bradycardia may occur with shock

29
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Signs and symptoms for urinary tract obstruction include all of the following except:

Urinary frequency and urgency

30
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Signs and symptoms for hydrocele include all of the following except:

Sudden and severe pain

31
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Signs and symptoms for appendicitis include all of the following except:

Bright rectal bleeding

32
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Bile pigment, old worn out blood cells, and materials from phagocytosis are removed by special hepatic cells called:

Kupffer

33
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Hepatic jaundice may be the result of all of the following except:

polycystic disease

34
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The enzyme that is released when fats and proteins reach the duodenum is:

cholecystokinin

35
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The first step of urine formation is:

glomerular filtration

36
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Which of the following is a carbohydrate enzyme?

amylase

37
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Renal dysfunction will result in an elevation of:

serum creatine

38
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The presence of hemoglobin in urine can cause:

acute renal failure

39
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Fat enters the system in the form of all of the following except:

glucose

40
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Which of the following physical assessment is helpful in evaluating cardiac output?

Blood pressure

41
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A type of solution that contains more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions is called a:

Acidic

42
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normal findings in a gastrointestinal assessment include all of the following except:

rigid abdominal musculature

43
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Uncontrolled hypertension may be related to:

renal dysfunction

44
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Hematochezia may lead to:

hypovolemia

45
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in acute forms of hepatitis, an increase in ALT may take ___ to reach normal levels.

2-3 months

46
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Which pancreatic function test remains elevated the longest in abnormal disease?

Urinary amylase

47
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The specific gravity in urinary disease refers to the:

Measurement of the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine

48
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which of the following is incorrect about cholesterol?

Total cholesterol is decreased in primary biliary cirrhosis

49
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Which of the following is correct about bilirubin?

A bilirubin test spots the increase before the onset of jaundice

50
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Which of the following statements is incorrect about blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

BUN is more sensitive than serum creatine in determining renal impairment

51
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the pancreas is located in which abdominal region?

ePIGASTRIC

52
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which plane passes through the neck of the pancreas and hilum of the kidneys?

transpyloric

53
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the linea alba is found in the:

abdominal wall

54
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the material that covers an organ is known as:

visceral peritoneum

55
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the epiploic foramen is the opening between:

greater and lesser sac

56
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the clinical significance of peritoneal recesses is:

fluid and infection accumulate in recesses

57
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which muscle is not related to the anterior abdominal wall?

quadratus lumborum

58
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all except which of the following muscles comprise the muscular “sling” in the inferior boundary of the true pelvis?

iliacus

59
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the space between the right lobe of the liver and the anterior right kidney and colic flexure is:

morison’s pouch

60
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Vital signs- medical measurements to ascertain how the body is functioning- may include all except which of the following?

pulmonary function tests

61
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the true pelvis is subdivided by the:

perineum

62
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an oblique passage through the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall is termed the:

inguinal canal

63
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the hernial sac is a diverticulum of the

peritoneum

64
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the smallest lobe of the liver that lies anterior to the inferior vena cave; superior border is the ligamentum venosum is the:

caudate lobe

65
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the triad of the portal vein, cbd, and hepatic artery entering the liver is known as the

porta hepatis

66
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which of the following is a muscular structure seen in the upper abdomen at the level of the celiac axis? it aligns the vertebral column before crossing the midline posterior to the inferior vena cava and anterior to the aorta. it may be mistaken for the right renal artery.

crus of the diapragm

67
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the most superior aspect of the liver at the level of the diaphragm is the:

dome of liver

68
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the central area of the spleen that allows the vascular and lymph structure to emerge or enter is the:

splenic hilum

69
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which of the following is a peritoneal reflection that serves as a principle attachment of the liver to the diaphragm?

falciform ligament

70
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Which of the following is an echogenic linear structure found anterior to the caudate lobe and posterior to the left lobe of the liver?

ligamentum venosum

71
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a group of muscles that originate at the hilum of kidneys and lie lateral to the spine is the

psoas muscle

72
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the triangular shaped echogenic structure seen within the left lobe of the liver is the:

ligamentum teres

73
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a patient lying on the side with the right side up is in the ___ position

left lateral decubitus

74
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the body of the pancreas lies ___ to the splenic vein

anterior

75
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the portal confluence is formed by the splenic vein and

superior mesenteric vein

76
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which artery courses along the anterolateral border of the head of the pancreas?

gastroduodenal artery

77
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the transducer typically selected for an upper abdominal ultrasound examination is:

2.5-5 MHz curvilinear

78
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the main lobar fissure projects from the ___ to the ___

right portal vein: neck of gallbladder

79
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which of the following patient preparation is required before an abdominal ultrasound exam?

take nothing by mouth 6-8 before exam

80
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the normal thickness of the gallbladder in a fasting state is

3 mm

81
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Wall thickness of the gallbladder should be measured in the ___ plane

transverse

82
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specific indications for a pancreas ultrasound exam include all of the following except

nephrolithiasis

83
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which of the following patient positions is the best for imaging the spleen?

right lateral decubitus

84
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the texture of the spleen should be compared with that of the

liver

85
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in a transverse image of the lower pole of the kidney, the psoas muscle lies:

medial

86
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aneurysms greater than ___ cm or those with a documented rapid rate of expansion have an increased risk of catastrophic rupture.

5

87
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which of the following is the best transducer for a scrota ultrasound exam

8-12 MHz linear

88
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which of the following patient positions are best for the majority of breast ultrasound?

supine, shallow oblique

89
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any plane parallel to the median plane

b. sagittal

90
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a vertical plane that bisects the body into right and left halves

A. median

91
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any plane at right angles to both the median and coronal planes

D. transverse

92
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any vertical plane at right angles to the median plane

C. coronal

93
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intra

C. within

94
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peri

B. around

95
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inter

D. between

96
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Retro

A. behind

97
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-itis

C. inflammation of

98
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-uria

D. urine

99
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-oma

A. tumor

100
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-stasis

b. standing still