cranium lab

B. Protecting the brain and supporting facial structures

1. The skull is primarily responsible for:

A. Producing blood cells

B. Protecting the brain and supporting facial structures

C. Connecting the spine to the thorax

D. Housing abdominal or

gans

D. 14

2. How many facial bones form the face?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

B. 8

3. How many cranial bones are present in the skull?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 14

C. Facial bones

4. The skull is divided into cranial bones and:

A. Nasal bones

B. Orbital bones

C. Facial bones

D. Temporal bones

C. Skullcap

5. The calvarium refers to the:

   A. Base of the skull

   B. Facial skeleton

   C. Skullcap

   D. Nasal cavity

C. Forehead

6. The frontal bone forms the:

   A. Posterior skull

   B. Lateral skull

   C. Forehead

   D. Cranial base only

B. Glabella

7. The smooth raised area between the eyebrows is the:

   A. Inion

   B. Glabella

   C. Bregma

   D. Lambda

C. Glabella

8. Which landmark is used frequently for skull positioning?

   A. Mastoid tip

   B. Styloid process

   C. Glabella

   D. Asterion

A. Orbital portion

9. The supraorbital margin is part of the:

   A. Orbital portion

   B. Squamous portion

   C. Ethmoid bone

   D. Sphenoid bone

C. Nerve and artery

10. The supraorbital notch allows passage of:

    A. Optic nerve

    B. Facial nerve

    C. Nerve and artery

    D. Jugular vein

C. Rounded prominence

11. The frontal tuberosity is best described as a:

    A. Opening

    B. Depression

    C. Rounded prominence

    D. Foramen

B. Roof of the orbit

12. The orbital plates of the frontal bone form the:

    A. Floor of the orbit

    B. Roof of the orbit

    C. Lateral wall of orbit

    D. Nasal septum

B. Orbital plates

13. The ethmoid notch separates the:

    A. Parietal bones

    B. Orbital plates

    C. Temporal bones

    D. Sphenoid wings

C. Anterior

14. The frontal bone contributes to which cranial fossa?

    A. Posterior

    B. Middle

    C. Anterior

    D. None

C. 4

15. How many cranial bones articulate with the frontal bone?

    A. 2

    B. 3

    C. 4

    D. 5

B. Paired bones

16. Parietal bones are:

    A. Single bones

    B. Paired bones

    C. Facial bones

    D. Irregular bones

C. Lateral walls and roof of cranium

17. The parietal bones form the:

    A. Base of skull

    B. Face

    C. Lateral walls and roof of cranium

    D. Nasal cavity

C. Parietal tubercle

18. The rounded prominence on each parietal bone is called:

    A. Inion

    B. Glabella

    C. Parietal tubercle

    D. Asterion

C. Maxilla

19. Which bone does NOT articulate with the parietal bone?

    A. Frontal

    B. Occipital

    C. Maxilla

    D. Temporal

A. Opposite parietal bone

20. The parietal bones articulate with the:

    A. Opposite parietal bone

    B. Nasal bone

    C. Vomer

    D. Zygoma

B. Posterior skull

21. The occipital bone forms the:

    A. Anterior skull

    B. Posterior skull

    C. Facial skeleton

    D. Orbits

C. Foramen magnum

22. The large opening for the spinal cord is the:

    A. Foramen ovale

    B. Optic canal

    C. Foramen magnum

    D. Jugular foramen

C. Inion

23. The palpable bump at the back of the head is the:

    A. Bregma

    B. Glabella

    C. Inion

    D. Pterion

B. Atlas (C1)

24. The occipital condyles articulate with:

    A. C2

    B. Atlas (C1)

    C. Mandible

    D. Temporal bone

C. Single cranial bone

25. The occipital bone is classified as:

    A. Paired

    B. Facial

    C. Single cranial bone

    D. Irregular facial bone

C. Paired

26. Temporal bones are:

    A. Single

    B. Facial bones

    C. Paired

    D. Midline bones

C. Hearing and balance

27. The temporal bone houses structures for:

    A. Vision

    B. Smell

    C. Hearing and balance

    D. Taste

C. Squamous portion

28. The zygomatic process is part of the:

    A. Mastoid portion

    B. Petrous portion

    C. Squamous portion

    D. Styloid portion

B. A muscle attachment and landmark

29. The mastoid process is important in radiography because it is:

    A. A joint surface

    B. A muscle attachment and landmark

    C. A nerve passage

    D. A sinus

C. Mastoid portion

30. Mastoid air cells are found in the:

    A. Petrous portion

    B. Squamous portion

    C. Mastoid portion

    D. Styloid portion

C. Petrous portion

31. The densest part of the temporal bone is the:

    A. Squamous portion

    B. Mastoid portion

    C. Petrous portion

    D. Tympanic portion

B. External acoustic meatus

32. The EAM refers to the:

    A. Internal ear canal

    B. External acoustic meatus

    C. Inner ear cavity

    D. Auditory tube

C. Hearing and balance

33. The IAM transmits nerves for:

    A. Vision

    B. Facial expression

    C. Hearing and balance

    D. Mastication

B. Temporal and mandible

34. The TMJ involves articulation between the:

    A. Temporal and maxilla

    B. Temporal and mandible

    C. Mandible and sphenoid

    D. Maxilla and zygoma

C. TEA

35. The petrous ridge corresponds approximately to the level of the:

    A. MSP

    B. EAM

    C. TEA

    D. IOML

B. Keystone of the skull

36. The sphenoid bone is known as the:

    A. Weakest bone

    B. Keystone of the skull

    C. Facial anchor

    D. Nasal support

C. Pituitary gland

37. The sella turcica houses the:

    A. Pineal gland

    B. Thyroid gland

    C. Pituitary gland

    D. Adrenal gland

B. Tuberculum sellae

38. The anterior border of the sella turcica is the:

    A. Dorsum sellae

    B. Tuberculum sellae

    C. Clinoid process

    D. Optic canal

B. Middle cranial fossa

39. The greater wings form part of the:

    A. Anterior cranial fossa

    B. Middle cranial fossa

    C. Posterior cranial fossa

    D. Nasal cavity

C. Mandibular nerve

40. Foramen ovale transmits the:

    A. Optic nerve

    B. Maxillary nerve

    C. Mandibular nerve

    D. Facial nerve

A. Middle meningeal artery

41. Foramen spinosum transmits the:

    A. Middle meningeal artery

    B. Optic nerve

    C. Olfactory nerve

    D. Trigeminal nerve

B. CN II

42. The optic canal transmits the:

    A. CN I

    B. CN II

    C. CN V

    D. CN VII

C. Muscles of mastication

43. Pterygoid processes provide attachment for:

    A. Eye muscles

    B. Tongue muscles

    C. Muscles of mastication

    D. Neck muscles

C. All cranial bones

44. The sphenoid articulates with:

    A. Only facial bones

    B. Only cranial bones

    C. All cranial bones

    D. Only temporal bones

D. All of the above

45. The sphenoid contributes to the:

    A. Orbits

    B. Cranial base

    C. Cranial fossae

    D. All of the above

B. Light and spongy

46. The ethmoid bone is best described as:

    A. Dense and thick

    B. Light and spongy

    C. Paired bone

    D. Facial bone only

B. Falx cerebri

47. The crista galli serves as attachment for:

    A. Tentorium cerebelli

    B. Falx cerebri

    C. Dura mater of spine

    D. Optic nerve

C. CN I

48. The cribriform plate allows passage of:

    A. CN II

    B. CN V

    C. CN I

    D. CN VII

B. Nasal septum

49. The perpendicular plate forms part of the:

    A. Hard palate

    B. Nasal septum

    C. Orbit

    D. Maxilla

C. Lateral masses

50. Ethmoidal air cells are found in the:

    A. Cribriform plate

    B. Crista galli

    C. Lateral masses

    D. Perpendicular plate

C. Orbits

51. The ethmoid forms the medial walls of the:

    A. Nasal cavity

    B. Cranial vault

    C. Orbits

    D. Maxilla

C. Anterior to sphenoid

52. The ethmoid lies:

    A. Posterior to sphenoid

    B. Inferior to occipital

    C. Anterior to sphenoid

    D. Lateral to parietal

B. Filter and warm air

53. The nasal conchae function to:

    A. Produce mucus

    B. Filter and warm air

    C. Support teeth

    D. Protect nerves

B. 2

54. The ethmoid articulates with how many cranial bones?

    A. 1

    B. 2

    C. 3

    D. 4

B. Skull fractures

55. The cribriform plate is vulnerable in:

    A. Sinusitis

    B. Skull fractures

    C. Otitis media

    D. TMJ disorders

C. Fibrous joints

56. Sutures are classified as:

    A. Diarthrodial joints

    B. Synovial joints

    C. Fibrous joints

    D. Cartilaginous joints

B. Frontal and parietals

57. The coronal suture separates the:

    A. Parietals

    B. Frontal and parietals

    C. Occipital and parietals

    D. Temporal and parietals

C. Along the midline

58. The sagittal suture runs:

    A. Side to side

    B. Posteriorly

    C. Along the midline

    D. Laterally

C. Posteriorly

59. The lambdoidal suture is located:

    A. Anteriorly

    B. Laterally

    C. Posteriorly

    D. Inferiorly

B. Temporal and parietal

60. The squamosal suture lies between:

    A. Frontal and parietal

    B. Temporal and parietal

    C. Occipital and temporal

    D. Frontal and temporal

B. Coronal and sagittal

61. Bregma is the junction of:

    A. Sagittal and lambdoidal

    B. Coronal and sagittal

    C. Coronal and squamosal

    D. Lambdoidal and squamosal

B. Sagittal and lambdoidal

62. Lambda is the junction of:

    A. Coronal and sagittal

    B. Sagittal and lambdoidal

    C. Squamosal and coronal

    D. Parietal and temporal

D. Occipital

63. The pterion is formed by four bones EXCEPT:

    A. Frontal

    B. Parietal

    C. Temporal

    D. Occipital

B. Parietal, temporal, occipital

64. The asterion is the junction of:

    A. Frontal, parietal, temporal

    B. Parietal, temporal, occipital

    C. Parietal and sphenoid

    D. Frontal and occipital

C. Lambdoidal suture

65. Sutural bones are most commonly found in the:

    A. Coronal suture

    B. Sagittal suture

    C. Lambdoidal suture

    D. Squamosal suture

B. Brain growth and molding

66. Fontanels allow for:

    A. Bone protection

    B. Brain growth and molding

    C. Muscle attachment

    D. Sinus drainage

D. Anterior

67. The largest fontanel is the:

    A. Posterior

    B. Mastoid

    C. Sphenoid

    D. Anterior

C. Bregma

68. The anterior fontanel is located at the:

    A. Lambda

    B. Inion

    C. Bregma

    D. Pterion

C. Earlier than anterior

69. The posterior fontanel closes:

    A. Later than anterior

    B. At same time

    C. Earlier than anterior

    D. At adulthood

B. Laterally

70. The sphenoid fontanels are located:

    A. Posteriorly

    B. Laterally

    C. Midline

    D. Inferiorly

C. Petrous portion

71. The organs of hearing are located in the:

    A. Mastoid portion

    B. Squamous portion

    C. Petrous portion

    D. Styloid portion

C. Petrous temporal bone

72. The densest bone in the body is the:

    A. Femur

    B. Occipital bone

    C. Petrous temporal bone

    D. Mandible

C. Auricle

73. The external ear includes the:

    A. Cochlea

    B. Ossicles

    C. Auricle

    D. Semicircular canals

C. 2.5 cm

74. The EAM measures approximately:

    A. 1 cm

    B. 1.5 cm

    C. 2.5 cm

    D. 5 cm

B. External and middle ear

75. The tympanic membrane separates:

    A. Middle and inner ear

    B. External and middle ear

    C. Inner ear and brain

    D. Cochlea and vestibule

B. Middle ear

76. The auditory ossicles are found in the:

    A. External ear

    B. Middle ear

    C. Inner ear

    D. Mastoid cells

C. Tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes

77. The correct vibration sequence is:

    A. Incus → malleus → stapes

    B. Malleus → stapes → incus

    C. Tympanic membrane → malleus → incus → stapes

    D. Stapes → incus → malleus

B. Oval window

78. The stapes footplate attaches to the:

    A. Round window

    B. Oval window

    C. Cochlea

    D. Vestibule

B. Perilymph

79. The osseous labyrinth contains:

    A. Endolymph

    B. Perilymph

    C. CSF

    D. Blood

C. Hearing

80. The cochlea is responsible for:

    A. Balance

    B. Equilibrium

    C. Hearing

    D. Eye movement

C. Bony structures

81. CT is best for evaluating:

    A. Soft tissue only

    B. Cranial nerves

    C. Bony structures

    D. Blood vessels

C. Soft tissue and nerves

82. MRI is best for visualizing:

    A. Skull sutures

    B. Bone fractures

    C. Soft tissue and nerves

    D. Mastoid air cells

C. Positioning landmark

83. The EAM is commonly used as a:

    A. Facial landmark

    B. Midline landmark

    C. Positioning landmark

    D. Sinus reference

B. Hearing and balance

84. The IAM is important in evaluating:

    A. TMJ

    B. Hearing and balance

    C. Vision

    D. Mastication

C. TEA

85. The petrous ridge is used to estimate the level of the:

    A. MSP

    B. IOML

    C. TEA

    D. AML

B. Between the eyebrows

86. The glabella is best palpated:

    A. At the back of the skull

    B. Between the eyebrows

    C. Above the ear

    D. Under the nose

B. Posterior skull views

87. The inion is used as a landmark for:

    A. Facial positioning

    B. Posterior skull views

    C. TMJ studies

    D. Sinus imaging

B. Posterior and inferior to EAM

88. The mastoid process lies:

    A. Anterior to EAM

    B. Posterior and inferior to EAM

    C. Superior to orbit

    D. Medial to nasal cavity

B. Inferior and anterior to EAM

89. The styloid process is located:

    A. Posterior to EAM

    B. Inferior and anterior to EAM

    C. Superior to mastoid

    D. At the midline

B. Covers middle meningeal artery

90. The pterion is clinically important because it:

    A. Is thick bone

    B. Covers middle meningeal artery

    C. Supports the orbit

    D. Forms nasal septum

B. Glabella

91. Which landmark is MOST commonly tested in skull positioning?

    A. Lambda

    B. Glabella

    C. Asterion

    D. Crista galli

C. Rotation

92. The MSP must be perpendicular to the IR to avoid:

    A. Elongation

    B. Magnification

    C. Rotation

    D. Distortion

C. Mid-sagittal views

93. The ethmoid is best evaluated in:

    A. Lateral skull

    B. PA skull

    C. Mid-sagittal views

    D. Oblique mandible

C. Normal variants

94. Wormian bones are:

    A. Pathologic

    B. Fractures

    C. Normal variants

    D. Sinus disease

B. Temporal

95. The TMJ involves which bone of the skull?

    A. Sphenoid

    B. Temporal

    C. Occipital

    D. Ethmoid

B. Middle ear to nasopharynx

96. The auditory tube connects the:

    A. Inner ear to brain

    B. Middle ear to nasopharynx

    C. External ear to middle ear

    D. Cochlea to vestibule

B. Balance

97. The vestibule is involved in:

    A. Hearing only

    B. Balance

    C. Smell

    D. Vision

C. Inner ear

98. The semicircular canals are part of the:

    A. Middle ear

    B. External ear

    C. Inner ear

    D. Mastoid

C. Coronal

99. The cranial suture that runs side to side is the:

    A. Sagittal

    B. Lambdoidal

    C. Coronal

    D. Squamosal

   C. Anatomical landmarks

100. Correct skull positioning relies MOST on:

     A. Exposure factors

     B. Patient history

     C. Anatomical landmarks

     D. Image processing