Chapter 19: Blood Study Guide

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79 Terms

1
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Blood is part of which organ system?

Cardiovascular system

2
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Which type of specialized tissue is blood?

Fluid connective tissue

3
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List five functions of blood.

1. Transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes

2. Regulating the pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids

3. Restricting fluid losses at injury sites

4. Defending against toxins and pathogens

5. Stabilizing body temperature

4
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Whole blood consists of _____ and ______.

Plasma; Formed elements

5
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The main component of plasma is ____ while the main formed elements are _____.

Water; Red blood cells

- Plasma:

- Plasma proteins: 7%

- Other Solutes: 1%

- Water: 92%

- Formed Elements:

- Platelets: < .1%

- White Blood Cells: < .1%

- Red Blood Cells: 99.9%

6
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The percentage of formed elements in a sample of blood is called the _____.

Hematocrit

7
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Why do males typically have higher packed cell volumes (PCVs)?

- The sex difference in hematocrit primarily reflects the fact that androgens (male hormones) stimulate red blood cell production, whereas estrogen (female hormones) do not.

8
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What occurs during hematopoiesis?

The production of formed elements

9
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The three major plasma proteins are _____, ____, and _____.

Albumins; Globulins; Fibrinogen

10
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List the three types of formed elements (please know their abbreviations where applicable).

- Red blood cells (RBCs)

- White blood cells (WBCs)

- Platelets

11
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List three reasons why venipuncture is a common sampling technique.

1. Superficial veins are easy to locate

2. The walls of veins are thinner than those of comparably sized arteries

3. Blood pressure in the venous system is relatively low, so the puncture wound seals quickly

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Which vein, located superior to the olecranon, is commonly used for venipuncture?

Median cubital vein

13
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For what purpose would an atrial puncture be used?

For blood gas analysis, an indicator of lung function

14
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Which organ synthesizes and releases 90% of plasm proteins?

Liver

15
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Red blood cells (RBCs) are also called _____.

Erythrocytes

16
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RBCs are red in color because then contain the red pigment called _____.

Hemoglobin

17
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List three effects that RBC shape has on its function.

- Gives each RBC a large surface-area-to-volume ratio

- Enables RBCs to form stacks that smooth blood flow through narrow blood vessels

- Enables RBCs to bend and flex when entering small capillaries

18
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Human RBCs do not contain organelles. What are the effects of not having organelles?

- Mature RBCs are anucleate, without organelles (nuclei and/or mitochondria), they retain only the cytoskeleton.

- Without nuclei and ribosomes, circulating RBCs cannot divide or synthesize structural proteins or enzymes. As a result, the RBCs cannot repair themselves, so their life span is relatively short– normally less than 120 days.

- With few organelles and no ability to synthesize proteins, their energy demands are low. Without mitochondria, they obtain the energy they need through the anaerobic metabolism of glucose that is absorbed from the surrounding plasma.

- The lack of mitochondria ensures that absorbed oxygen will be carried to peripheral tissues, not “stolen” by mitochondria in the RBC.

19
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Hemoglobin is responsible for the RBCs ability to transport ____ and ______.

Oxygen; Carbon Dioxide

20
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If every protein chain of hemoglobin has a heme associated with it, how many heme molecules and iron molecules are contained in one molecule of hemoglobin?

Four heme molecules and four iron molecules

21
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When each heme unit in hemoglobin is associated with an oxygen molecule it forms ______ which is bright red in color.

Oxyhemoglobin, HbO2

22
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If each heme unit in hemoglobin is NOT associated with an oxygen molecule it forms ______ which is dark red in color.

Deoxyhemoglobin

23
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Compare the oxygen binding capacities of adult vs fetal hemoglobin.

- The RBCs of an embryo or a fetus contain a different form of hemoglobin, known as fetal hemoglobin. It binds oxygen more readily than does adult hemoglobin. For this reason, a

developing fetus can “steal” oxygen from the maternal blood- stream at the placenta.

- The conversion from fetal hemoglobin to the adult form begins shortly before birth and continues over the next year. The production of fetal hemoglobin can be stimulated in adults by the administration of drugs such as hydroxyurea or butyrate. This is one method of treatment for sickle cell disease (SCD), a group of conditions that result from the production of abnormal forms of adult hemoglobin.

24
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If each heme unit is associated with a molecule of carbon dioxide it forms _____.

Carbaminohemoglobin

25
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A condition called ____ occurs when a patient has low amounts of hemoglobin.

Anemia

26
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RBC formation in adults is called _____ and occurs in the ________.

Erythropoiesis; Myeloid tissue, or red bone marrow

27
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Which immature blood cell, accounting for less than 1% of the RBC population is found in the blood?

Reticulocytes

28
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Erythropoiesis is directly stimulated by the hormone ______.

Erythropoietin (EPO)

29
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A low level of oxygen in tissues is called _____.

Hypoxia

30
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For vitamin B12 to be absorbed it needs to be bound to ______ which is produced by the stomach.

Intrinsic factors

31
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The breaking down/rupturing of RBCs is called ______.

Hemolysis

32
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The presence of hemoglobin in the urine due to an excess breakdown of RBCs is called _____.

Hemoglobinuria

33
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The presence of intact RBCs in the urine is called ______.

Hematuria

34
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A condition called ______ occurs when there is a yellowing of the skin and eyes. This is caused by orange-yellow pigment called _____.

Jaundice; Bilirubin

35
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Lack of iron in the diet or impaired uptake of iron can result in a condition called _______.

Iron-deficiency anemia

36
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RBCs have at least 50 different types of antigens, but three called ___, ____, and _____ are particularly important.

A; B; Rh (or D)

Important info:

- The ABO blood group is based on the presence or absence of the A and B surface antigens. According to this group, there are four blood types:

o Type A blood has RBCs with surface antigen A only

o Type B has surface antigen B only

o Type AB has both A and B,

o Type O has neither A nor B. Individuals with these blood types are not evenly distributed throughout the world.

- The Rh blood group is based on the presence or absence of the Rh surface antigen.

o The term Rh positive (Rh+) indicates the presence of the Rh surface antigen, commonly called the Rh factor.

o The absence of this antigen is indicated as Rh negative (Rh–) .

o When the complete blood type is recorded, the term Rh is usually omitted, and a positive or negative sign is used. For example, the types are reported as O negative (O–), A positive (A+), and so on. Type O+ is the most common blood type.

37
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Type A blood has ____ surface antigens and ____ antibodies.

Only A; Anti-B

38
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Type B blood has ____ surface antigens and _____ antibodies.

Only B; Anti-A

39
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Type AB blood has ______ surface antigens and _______ antibodies.

Both A and B; Neither anti-A nor anti-B

40
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Type O blood _______ surface antigens and __________ antibodies.

Lacks both A and B; Contains both anti-A and anti-B

41
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If Type B blood is mistakenly given to a person with Type A, what will specifically occur in a stepwise fashion?

o In a cross-reaction, antibodies react with their target antigens causing agglutination and hemolysis of the affected RBCs. In this example, anti-A antibodies encounter A surface antigens, which cause the RBCs bearing the A surface antigens to clump together and break up.

o However, your plasma contains antibodies, sometimes called agglutinins (ah-GLU-tih-ninz), that will attack the antigens on “foreign” RBCs. When these antibodies attack, the foreign cells agglutinate, or clump together; this process is called agglutination.

42
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Why is cross match testing used for?

To ensure complete compatibility between donor blood and recipient blood.

43
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In emergency situations, which blood type is given because it is considered the "universal donor"?

Type O blood (preferably O-)

44
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Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), also known as _______, occurs when the mother is Rh _____ and the fetus is Rh _____.

Erythroblastosis fetalis; Negative; Positive

45
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Why doesn't HDN usually occur during a first pregnancy of an RH- mother and Rh+ fetus?

o Problems seldom develop during a first pregnancy, because very few fetal cells enter the maternal bloodstream then, and this the mother’s immune system is not stimulated to produce anti-Rh antibodies.

o Exposure to fetal red blood cell antigens generally occurs during delivery, when bleeding takes place at the placenta and uterus. Such mixing of fetal and maternal blood can stimulate the mother’s immune system to produce anti-Rh antibodies, leading to sensitization.

o About 20% of Rh– mothers who carried Rh+ children become sensitized within 6 months of delivery. Because the anti-Rh antibodies are not produced in significant amounts until after delivery, a woman’s first infant is not affected.

46
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________ is administered to prevent the mother from being sensitized to the baby’s Rh antigen during the first pregnancy.

RhoGAM (Rh immunoglobulin)

47
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White blood cells (WBCs) can migrate out of the blood and squeeze into surrounding tissue in a process known as emigration or ______.

Diapedesis

48
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Positive ______ is a characteristic where WBCs are attracted to specific chemical stimuli.

Chemotaxis

49
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White blood cells (WBCs) are divided into two groups called __________ and _________ based on their appearance after staining.

Granular leukocytes, or granulocytes (with abundant stained granules); Agranular leukocytes, or agranulocytes (with few, if any, stained granules)

50
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______, _____, and _____ are WBC granulocytes.

Neutrophils; Eosinophils; Basophils

51
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_____ and ______ are WBC agranulocytes.

Monocytes; Lymphocytes

52
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Which four types of WBCs are part of the body's non-specific defenses?

- Neutrophils

- Eosinophils

- Basophils

- Monocytes

53
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_____, _____, and _____ are WBCs capable of phagocytosis.

Neutrophils; Eosinophils; Monocytes

54
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When a neutrophil engulfs a bacterium, it quickly undergoes an increased metabolic rate, called a ______, then produces destructive chemical agents such as ______ and _______.

Respiratory burst; Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2); Superoxide anions (O2-)

55
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Eosinophils will attack objects coated with antibodies and engulf them. If they are too large to engulf, they will release toxic compounds such as _____ and _____ enzymes.

Nitric oxide; Cytotoxic

56
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Which two conditions will cause an increased number of eosinophils?

- Allergic reactions, because they are sensitive to circulating allergens.

- Injury sites, where they release enzymes that reduce inflammation produced by mast cells and neutrophils.

57
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Basophil granules contain _____ and _____.

Histamine; Heparin

58
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Monocytes that enter peripheral tissues become _____.

Macrophages

59
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T cells (T lymphocytes) are responsible for _____ immunity and B bells (B lymphocytes) are responsible for ____ immunity.

Cell-mediated; Humoral

60
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Activated B cells called ______ cells synthesize and secrete antibodies.

Plasma cells

61
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______ cells carry out immune surveillance and are important in preventing cancer.

Natural killer (NK)

62
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The term _____ indicates an inadequate number of WBCs.

Leukopenia

63
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The term _____ indicates an excessive number of WBCs.

Leukocytosis

64
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The process of WBC production is called ______ and the process of lymphocyte production is called ______.

Leukopoiesis; Lymphocytopoiesis

65
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Several hormones called _______ (CSFs) are involved in regulating certain WBC populations.

Colony-stimulating factors

66
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Hematopoietic stem cells are called _____ which can divide into two different types of stem cells called ____ stem cells and ____ stem cells.

Hemocytoblasts; Myeloid; Lymphoid

67
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Progenitor cells are formed from _____ stem cells and under certain conditions will form all the formed elements except _____.

Myeloid; Lymphocytes

68
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_____ stem cells produce lymphocytes.

Lymphoid

69
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Platelets are also called _____.

Thrombocytes

70
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What is the major role of platelets?

Platelets play a major role in a vascular clotting system that also includes plasma proteins and the cells and tissues of the blood vessels.

71
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Platelets are cytoplasm-filled fragments that are produced by _______.

Thrombocytopoiesis

72
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List the three phases of hemostasis.

- The endothelial cells contract and expose the underlying basement membrane to the blood stream

- The endothelial cells begin releasing chemical factors and local hormones

- The endothelial plasma membranes become "sticky"

73
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The process of coagulation involves the chain reactions of the _____, _____, and _____ pathways.

Extrinsic; Intrinsic; Common

74
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The _____ pathway begin outside of the bloodstream. The _____ pathway begins inside the bloodstream in the vessel wall. These two pathways converge at the _____ pathway.

Extrinsic; Intrinsic; Common

75
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What enzyme converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin?

Thrombin

76
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_____ ion and vitamin ___ affect almost every aspect of the clotting process.

Calcium; K

77
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The process of dissolving a clot is called _____.

Fibrinolysis

78
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______ is a condition in which platelets counts are too low resulting in bleeding issues

Thrombocytopenia

79
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_____ is a genetic disorder seen in males that is characterized by the lack of certain clotting factors resulting in serious and sometimes fatal bleeding.

Hemophilia