CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 Study Guide (Introduction to Troubleshooting Print Devices)

Flashcards covering the introduction to CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1, including certification overview, exam structure, safety procedures, troubleshooting methodology, hardware components like motherboards, CPUs, memory, storage devices, and basic network concepts, wireless technologies, internet connections, network addressing, and configuration, network servers and services, mobile device components, display types, mobile device synchronization, and printer types and maintenance.

What is the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) certification designed for?

It's an entry-level certification for technical professionals configuring, operating, and troubleshooting various devices and technologies, including desktops, laptops, tablets, mobile devices, wearables, IoT devices, networking equipment, virtualization, and cloud computing.

What is the purpose of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 certification?

It validates entry-level competency in IT support roles, demonstrates problem-solving skills, and provides foundational knowledge for hybrid and remote workforce support.

What is the target audience for the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 certification?

Individuals seeking their first IT support position; no prior IT experience or prerequisite knowledge is required.

What are the five domains of knowledge covered in the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Core 1 exam?

Mobile devices, Networking, Hardware, Virtualization and cloud computing, and Troubleshooting.

How is the CompTIA A+ certification structured in terms of exams?

It requires passing two exams: Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202).

How often are certification versions for CompTIA A+ updated?

Approximately every three years.

How many domains and objectives does the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam objective organization contain?

Five domains and 27 objectives.

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam questions does the 'Mobile Devices' domain make up?

13%

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam questions does the 'Networking' domain make up?

23%

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam questions does the 'Hardware' domain make up?

25%

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam questions does the 'Virtualization and Cloud Computing' domain make up?

11%

What percentage of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam questions does the 'Hardware and Network Troubleshooting' domain make up?

28%

What types of questions are included in the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam format?

Multiple choice, multiple select, and performance-based questions (PBQs).

What is the passing score for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam?

675 out of 900 (scaled score).

How much time is allotted to complete the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam?

90 minutes.

What is the typical cost of a CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam voucher?

$250–$275, varying by location.

What is a key focus for the certification exam regarding terms and definitions?

Recognize terms, definitions, and concepts instead of memorizing or reciting them.

What are 'distractors' in CompTIA exam questions?

Incorrect options designed to distract test-takers, which should be eliminated to improve the chances of selecting the correct answer.

What should candidates pay attention to in CompTIA exam questions, especially words like 'MOST' or 'LEAST'?

Emphasis on keywords, which are critical to understanding and answering the question correctly.

When answering CompTIA exam questions, what terminology and processes should be followed?

CompTIA-approved terminology and processes, even if workplace practices differ.

What does 'selecting the BEST answer' imply in CompTIA questions?

Choosing the most correct or specific answer applicable in the majority of situations, even if multiple options seem partially correct.

What is a computer?

A device performing input, processing, storage, and output, with examples including desktops, laptops, tablets, smartphones, and IoT devices.

What are the basic functions of a computer?

Input (data entry), Processing (operations by CPU), Storage (data retention), and Output (display/delivery of results).

What are the essential components of computers?

Hardware (input/processing/storage/output devices), Software (OS, applications, drivers), and Firmware (embedded software).

What are the three main areas of safety procedures in IT?

Personal Safety (prevents injuries to technicians), Component Safety (protects computer components), and Electrical Safety (prevents electrocution and protects equipment).

What are proper lifting techniques for heavy or bulky items in IT?

Lift with legs, not the back, by bending knees, and use a push cart or seek assistance for items over 40-50 pounds.

What is Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) and how is it prevented in IT?

Damage caused by electron transfer from a statically charged body to an uncharged component; prevented by using antistatic bags, ESD wrist straps, and mats.

What is the primary purpose of troubleshooting methodology?

To identify the root cause of issues or find workarounds to restore functionality, following a systematic and repeatable process.

What is the first step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Identify the Problem: Gather information from the user, identify user and environmental changes, and perform backups.

What is the second step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Establish a Theory of Probable Cause: Question the obvious and research symptoms through various resources.

What is the third step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Test the Theory to Determine the Cause: Confirm or disprove the theory by testing, reestablish a theory, or escalate the issue if not confirmed.

What is the fourth step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem and Implement the Solution: Create a plan and follow manufacturer instructions.

What is the fifth step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Verify Full System Functionality and Implement Preventative Measures: Test the system, ensure resolution, and apply preventative measures.

What is the sixth step in the CompTIA Six-Step Troubleshooting Methodology?

Document Findings, Actions, and Outcomes: Record the problem, solution, and results in the appropriate system.

What is the purpose of building a custom PC?

To assemble a computer from scratch by correctly installing and integrating components, learning to build, repair, or upgrade as a field technician.

What are the essential components of a custom PC build?

Motherboard, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Memory (RAM), Storage Devices, Cooling Fans, and Power Supply Unit (PSU).

What is USB (Universal Serial Bus)?

A widely used interface standard that connects various devices, providing both data transfer and power delivery capabilities while supporting multiple devices via daisy-chaining.

What were serial connections (predecessor to USB) typically used for?

Older mice, keyboards, external modems, and still found in legacy applications for connecting to routers and switches, using slow speeds (up to 115 Kbps) and limiting to one device per port.

What is the fastest USB version and its maximum speed?

USB 4.0, capable of speeds up to 40 Gbps.

What is the recommended maximum cable length for USB 3.0 and later versions to maintain high-speed performance?

3 meters (9 feet).

What are the power output differences between USB 2.0 and USB 3.0 ports?

USB 2.0 provides 500 mA (0.5A), while USB 3.0 delivers up to 900 mA (0.9A) or 4.5 watts.

What are the three main USB Type B connector variations?

Type B Connector (square with rounded corners), Type B Mini Connector (trapezoid shape), and Type B Micro Connector (shorter, skinnier version).

What are the key features of a USB Type C connector?

Small oval shape, compatible with USB 3 and USB 4, reversible design allowing insertion in either direction, and commonly used in modern laptops, tablets, and and smartphones.

What is HDMI (High Definition Multimedia Interface) and its common uses?

The most widely used video interface supporting high-definition video and audio signals, commonly used in TVs, gaming consoles, Blu-ray players, laptops, and desktop computers.

What does HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection) ensure?

Secure transmission of copyrighted content over HDMI.

What is DisplayPort (DP)?

An open-standard video interface developed by VESA to compete with HDMI, offering high-speed video and audio transmission, commonly used in PC monitors and professional graphics.

What are the three main connector types for DVI (Digital Visual Interface)?

DVI-A (analog signals only), DVI-D (digital signals only), and DVI-I (both analog and digital signals).

What are the limitations of VGA (Video Graphics Array)?

Limited to 640x480 pixels resolution and susceptible to signal degradation and interference over long distances.

What is Thunderbolt, and what connectors do its different versions use?

A high-speed interface supporting video, data, and power; Thunderbolt 1 and 2 use Mini DisplayPort connectors, while Thunderbolt 3 and 4 use USB Type-C connectors.

What are the advantages of USB Type-C for video cables?

It is a versatile connector supporting video, data, and power delivery; it supports DisplayPort Alternate Mode for video; it has a reversible design; and it is capable of supporting 4K and 8K video resolutions, reducing cable clutter.

What is Lightning cable?

A proprietary cable designed by Apple for mobile devices like iPhones, iPads, and accessories, featuring a reversible connector and exclusive to Apple devices.

What is SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)?

The standard internal storage connection used in desktops and laptops, with a 7-pin L-shaped data connector and a 15-pin power connector, supporting speeds up to 6 Gbps (SATA III).

What is eSATA (External SATA)?

An external version of SATA for connecting external drives, offering speeds up to 6 Gbps (SATA III), but now less common due to advances in USB technology.

What is SCSI (Small Computer Systems Interface)?

A legacy storage interface for connecting multiple devices, used in older enterprise systems and data centers, with versions supporting up to 15 devices at speeds up to 320 Mbps.

What is SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)?

A modern enterprise-grade storage connection used in high-performance environments, offering speeds up to 24 Gbps, supporting full duplex communication, and backward compatible with SATA drives.

What is a 'form factor' in the context of motherboards?

Describes the shape, layout, and type of case and power supply compatible with a motherboard, determining the number and type of components that can be installed.

What is the size of an ATX (Advanced Technology eXtended) motherboard?

12 x 9.6 inches (304 x 244 mm).

What is the size of a microATX (mATX) motherboard?

9.6 x 9.6 inches (244 x 244 mm).

What is the size of a Mini-ITX motherboard?

6.7 x 6.7 inches (170 x 170 mm).

What are the three main types of processor architectures?

x86, x64, and ARM.

What is the main limitation of x86 architecture (32-bit instruction set)?

It supports up to 4GB of RAM due to 32-bit addressing.

What are the key advantages of x64 architecture?

Extends x86 to support 64-bit operations, supports more than 4GB of RAM, and is backwards compatible with 32-bit programs.

What is ARM (Advanced RISC Machines) architecture primarily designed for?

Low-power devices such as tablets, smartphones, and smart TVs, providing extended battery life and reduced heat generation.

What is a CPU Socket?

A connector on a motherboard that houses the central processing unit (CPU) and facilitates communication between the CPU and other components.

What is a ZIF (Zero Insertion Force) mechanism in CPU sockets?

A mechanism ensuring CPUs can be installed without force, reducing the risk of bending or breaking pins.

Which CPU manufacturer typically uses LGA (Land Grid Array) sockets, and where are the pins located?

Intel; the pins are on the motherboard, and the CPU has corresponding contact points.

Which CPU manufacturer typically uses PGA (Pin Grid Array) sockets, and where are the pins located?

AMD; the pins are on the CPU, and the motherboard has corresponding holes.

What does 'multithreading' (or simultaneous multithreading/hyper-threading) in a CPU refer to?

Allows multiple instructions (threads) to execute simultaneously within a single processor core, reducing task completion time and increasing efficiency.

What is 'Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP)'?

Utilizes multiple physical processors on a motherboard, requiring a motherboard with multiple sockets and an operating system that supports multiple processors.

What is 'multi-core processing'?

Combines multiple processing cores within a single CPU package, appearing as one physical CPU to the motherboard and dividing instructions among cores for execution.

What is 'virtualization support' in a CPU?

Enables hardware to emulate multiple virtual computers (virtual machines) and is supported by Intel’s VT and AMD’s AMD-V technologies.

What is the AM4 socket?

An AMD-based pin grid array (PGA) socket where the processor has pins and the motherboard has holes, utilizing a Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) mechanism.

What is the purpose of the 24-pin mainboard power connector?

To power most components on the motherboard.

What is thermal load in a computer system?

The heat generated by computer components like the power supply, processor, memory, and expansion cards, which can damage sensitive components if excessive.

What is 'passive cooling'?

Relies on components without moving parts or power, such as heat sinks and thermal paste, to dissipate heat.

What is 'active cooling'?

Uses fans powered by electricity to increase airflow and dissipate heat, commonly seen in processor fans, case fans, power supply fans, and graphics card fans.

What is the purpose of 'liquid cooling' systems?

Designed for high-performance systems (gaming PCs, CAD machines) for more efficient and quieter cooling by using liquids with superior heat absorption compared to air.

What do Power Supply Units (PSUs) do?

Provide direct current (DC) power to computer components by converting alternating current (AC) from wall outlets into low-voltage DC.

What is the difference between a 'traditional PSU' and a 'modular PSU'?

Traditional PSUs have all cables permanently attached, while modular PSUs allow unused cables to be detached, improving airflow and cooling.

Why are 'redundant power supplies' used in critical systems like servers?

To provide dual power supplies for continuous operation, allowing one PSU to fail without shutting down the system and supporting hot-swapping of faulty power supplies.

What are the common configurations for the CPU power connector?

4-pin, 6-pin, or 8-pin, with most modern systems using 8-pin connectors, and some PSUs providing a 4+4 pin configuration.

What are the common configurations for PCIe (PCI Express) power connectors?

6-pin or 8-pin, with some power supplies offering 6+2 pin connectors for compatibility, providing additional power to high-performance expansion cards.

What are 'Molex connectors' typically used for?

Legacy connectors for older IDE/PATA hard disks and optical drives, rarely used in modern systems but still included in many power supplies for compatibility.

What are the standard AC input voltages in North America versus Europe and Asia?

120 volts AC (110–125 volts, 60 Hz) in the US, and 230 volts AC (230–240 volts) in Europe and Asia.

What are the key DC output voltages required by a PC?

3.3 volts DC, 5 volts DC, and 12 volts DC, with 12 volts being most critical for modern PCs.

What is 'wattage rating' for a PSU?

Refers to the power supply unit's output capacity, measured in Watts, which must exceed the total power consumption of all system components.

What are 'efficiency ratings' for power supplies, and how do they impact power consumption?

Standard PSUs are 70–75% efficient, while Energy Star-rated ones are 80% or higher; higher efficiency saves energy and reduces heat generation, leading to lower utility bills.

What is RAM (Random Access Memory), and why is it considered non-persistent?

Temporary storage for data and instructions before processing by the CPU, faster than storage devices but slower than CPU cache; it's non-persistent because data is lost when the computer is powered off.

What is the relationship between Cache, RAM, and Storage in terms of speed and capacity?

Cache (CPU) is the fastest and smallest; RAM (system memory) is fast but larger than cache and smaller than storage; Storage (hard drives, SSDs) is the slowest but largest, providing permanent file storage.

What are the memory addressing limitations of 32-bit (x86) versus 64-bit (x64) CPUs?

32-bit CPUs can address up to 4 GB of memory, while 64-bit CPUs can address up to 16 exabytes of memory, enabling support for significantly larger RAM capacities.

What are DIMM (Dual In-line Memory Modules) and SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM) used for?

DIMMs are used in desktops and are large in size, while SODIMMs are used in laptops and are compact.

What happens when memory modules of different speeds are mixed?

All modules will run at the speed of the slowest module.

What are the pin counts for DDR, DDR2, DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5 memory modules?

DDR: 184 pins; DDR2: 240 pins; DDR3: 240 pins; DDR4: 288 pins; DDR5: 288 pins.

What is 'Multi-Channel Memory'?

Allows multiple memory modules to work together in tandem, increasing performance by widening the data pathway between the CPU, memory controller, and RAM.

What is the data pathway width for single-channel, dual-channel, triple-channel, and quad-channel memory configurations?

Single-channel: One 64-bit data bus; Dual-channel: Two 64-bit pathways combined to 128-bit; Triple-channel: Three 64-bit pathways combined to 192-bit; Quad-channel: Four 64-bit pathways combined to 256-bit.

What is 'Non-Parity Memory'?

Standard memory that does not perform error checking, making it faster and cheaper than parity memory.

What is 'Parity Memory'?

Performs basic error checking to ensure data reliability, uses an extra parity bit (9 bits: 8 data bits + 1 parity bit) to detect single-bit errors but cannot correct them, and is slower and more expensive than non-parity memory.

What is 'Error Correcting Code (ECC) Memory'?

An advanced memory type that can both detect and correct errors, slower than parity memory but offers higher integrity and reliability, primarily used in high-end workstations and servers.

What is 'Virtual Memory' (also known as a page file or swap space)?

Allocates a block of hard drive or SSD space to act as system memory (RAM), used when physical RAM is insufficient for actively running programs to extend the effective capacity of RAM.

Why is virtual memory slower than physical RAM?

Because it relies on storage devices (hard drives or SSDs), which are significantly slower than RAM.